ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 2 of 9
The most significant form of meningitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is the most significant form due to its potential severity and rapid progression, requiring urgent medical intervention with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death if left untreated. Septic meningitis (choice B) refers to meningitis caused by a systemic infection spreading to the meninges. Aseptic meningitis (choice C) is typically viral or non-bacterial in origin, usually milder than bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis (choice D) is less severe than bacterial meningitis and often resolves on its own without specific treatment.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should a nurse give a client with Hodgkin’s disease who is at risk of impaired skin integrity? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Keeping the neck in midline helps prevent compression of the lymphatic vessels in the neck, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Step 2: This position also helps maintain proper blood flow and lymphatic drainage in the neck area. Step 3: Trimming nails short, using mild soap, and supporting bony prominences are not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the specific risk factor of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices are not as relevant to this particular concern.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following guidekines does not observe surgical asepisi in the operating room?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in surgical asepsis, sterile articles should not touch other sterile articles or surfaces to maintain sterility. Choice B is correct as surgical team gowns are sterile in front. Choice C is correct as any breach makes the area contaminated. Choice D is correct as sterile drapes create a sterile field.
Question 5 of 9
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Before administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to ensure they can tolerate the medication without compromising their breathing. Alertness indicates their ability to handle potential side effects, while respiratory rate is vital to monitor for any signs of respiratory depression. Choice B (last meal) is not directly related to giving a narcotic analgesic, although it may impact the absorption rate. Choice C (bowel habits) and last bowel movement are not immediately relevant to assessing the client's readiness for a narcotic analgesic. Choice D (history of addictions) is important but not the priority when assessing for immediate safety and efficacy of the medication.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is making initial rounds on patients. Which intervention for a patient with poor wound healing should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observe wound appearance and edges. This is the first intervention the nurse should perform because assessing the wound's appearance and edges provides crucial information about the healing process and any signs of infection. It helps in determining the next steps in the care plan. Reinforcing the dressing (A) and performing dressing changes (B) should come after assessing the wound. Documenting wound characteristics (D) is important but should also follow the initial assessment.
Question 7 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in making a nursing clinical decision. The nurse assesses the time of the last dressing change and compares it with the appearance of old and new drainage. This process ensures that the decision to remove the wound dressing is based on accurate and validated data, leading to appropriate patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it does not involve data validation. The decision is driven by increased pain and family requests, without verifying the underlying cause. Choice C is incorrect as it involves responding to a patient's reported symptom (leg cramps), but it does not involve data validation in making the clinical decision. Choice D is incorrect as it relies solely on the patient's report of decreased mobility without further data validation.
Question 8 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
When administering spironolactone (Aldactone) to a client who has had a unilateral adrenalectomy, the nurse should instruct the client about which of the following possible adverse effects of the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Menstrual irregularities. After a unilateral adrenalectomy, the remaining adrenal gland may be affected by spironolactone, leading to hormonal imbalances and menstrual irregularities. This drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can interfere with the production of aldosterone, affecting hormonal regulation. Breast tenderness (A) is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Increased facial hair (B) is associated with hirsutism, not typically seen with spironolactone. Hair loss (D) is more commonly associated with other medications like chemotherapy, not spironolactone.