Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?

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Question 1 of 9

Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.

Question 2 of 9

The most significant form of meningitis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is the most significant form due to its potential severity and rapid progression, requiring urgent medical intervention with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death if left untreated. Septic meningitis (choice B) refers to meningitis caused by a systemic infection spreading to the meninges. Aseptic meningitis (choice C) is typically viral or non-bacterial in origin, usually milder than bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis (choice D) is less severe than bacterial meningitis and often resolves on its own without specific treatment.

Question 3 of 9

If a patient has severe hyperkalemia, it is possible to administer calcium gluconate intravenously to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Antagonize the action of K on the heart Rationale: 1. Calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac cell membranes during hyperkalemia. 2. By antagonizing the effects of potassium on the heart, it helps prevent life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. 3. It does not lower potassium levels immediately or prevent transient renal failure. 4. Administering calcium gluconate is specific to addressing the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, not renal or overall potassium reduction.

Question 4 of 9

Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.

Question 5 of 9

For which of the ff conditions would the use of salt tablets be considered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: - Salt tablets are used for mild deficits of serum sodium to help restore electrolyte balance. - Sodium is crucial for fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. - Severe deficits of serum magnesium, potassium, and calcium require specific electrolyte replacement therapy, not salt tablets. Summary: - Choice A is correct because salt tablets are used for mild deficits of serum sodium. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve severe deficits of different electrolytes that require specific replacement therapy.

Question 6 of 9

At 1400, the nurse notices that the dressing is saturated and leaking. What is the nurse’s next action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a saturated and leaking dressing indicates a potential infection risk and compromised wound healing. The nurse should revise the plan of care and change the dressing immediately to prevent complications. Waiting until 1800 (choice A) could lead to further contamination and delay in treatment. Reassessing in 2 hours (choice C) might worsen the condition. Discontinuing the plan of care (choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the immediate issue.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following are examples of common factors in a client that may influence assessment priorities?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diet and exercise program. This is because a client's diet and exercise program directly impact their physical health and well-being, making it an important factor to consider when determining assessment priorities. Understanding their dietary habits and level of physical activity can help identify potential health risks or areas for improvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the client's physical health and well-being, which are crucial factors in determining assessment priorities. Standing in the community (B) may influence social interactions but does not necessarily impact assessment priorities. Ability to pay for services (C) relates to financial considerations rather than health assessment priorities. Developmental stage (D) may be important for understanding the client's cognitive and emotional development, but it is not as directly relevant to assessment priorities as diet and exercise.

Question 8 of 9

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.

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