ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 2 of 9
Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.
Question 3 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in making a nursing clinical decision. The nurse assesses the time of the last dressing change and compares it with the appearance of old and new drainage. This process ensures that the decision to remove the wound dressing is based on accurate and validated data, leading to appropriate patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it does not involve data validation. The decision is driven by increased pain and family requests, without verifying the underlying cause. Choice C is incorrect as it involves responding to a patient's reported symptom (leg cramps), but it does not involve data validation in making the clinical decision. Choice D is incorrect as it relies solely on the patient's report of decreased mobility without further data validation.
Question 4 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 5 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 6 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrimp and tomatoes. Shrimp is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Tomatoes are rich in Vitamin C, which helps enhance iron absorption. Cheese, bananas, lobster, squash, lamb, and peaches do not provide significant amounts of iron essential for an anemic client. The combination of shrimp and tomatoes offers a balanced approach to increase iron levels effectively.
Question 7 of 9
A client is admitted to the ICU, which laboratory result must be reported immediately to the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: platelets 18,000. A critically low platelet count can lead to life-threatening bleeding in the ICU. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000. A count of 18,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Rationale for why other choices are incorrect: A: Hematocrit of 48% is within normal range (male: 42-52%, female: 37-47%). B: paCO2 of 38 mm Hg is within normal range (35-45 mm Hg). D: WBC count of 8000 is within normal range (4000-11000/uL). In critical care settings, it is vital to prioritize and address life-threatening conditions promptly, hence the urgent need to report the critically low platelet count.
Question 8 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is explaining the action of insulin to a newly diagnosed diabetic client. During the teaching, the nurse reviews the process of insulin secretion in the body. The nurse is correct when stating that insulin is secreted from the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Insulin is a hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreas. 2. Beta cells are responsible for monitoring blood glucose levels and secreting insulin in response to high glucose levels. 3. Insulin helps regulate blood glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into cells. 4. Adenohypophysis secretes other hormones, not insulin. 5. Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon, not insulin. 6. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete calcitonin, not insulin. Summary: Choice C is correct because insulin is indeed secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not secrete insulin or are related to other hormones.