ATI RN
Genitourinary System Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
Why should the nurse assess the client's pressure dressing frequently after an angiography procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To note hematoma formation. After an angiography procedure, there is a risk of bleeding under the pressure dressing, leading to hematoma formation. By assessing the dressing frequently, the nurse can detect any signs of hematoma early, preventing complications such as compromised circulation or infection. Checking for frank bleeding (Choice A) is important but less likely to occur under a pressure dressing. Arterial occlusion (Choice C) is a serious but less immediate concern post-angiography. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice D) is also important but not specific to monitoring for hematoma formation.
Question 2 of 5
Which laboratory result is of most concern for a patient with cystitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine bacteria count of 100,000 colonies/mL indicates a significant bacterial infection, which is concerning for cystitis. This result suggests an active infection in the urinary tract, requiring prompt treatment. A: Serum WBC of 9000/mm³ is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate an active infection. B: Urinalysis with 1-2 WBCs present is also within the normal range and may not be indicative of an acute infection. D: Serum hematocrit of 36% is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to cystitis.
Question 3 of 5
If necessary, your physician can increase your dose up to 40 mg per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The statement indicates the possibility of increasing the dose up to 40 mg, implying that it is within the physician's discretion. Step 2: The use of the word "can" suggests the potential for the physician to make such an adjustment. Step 3: The phrase "if necessary" implies that the dose adjustment will be based on the individual's specific needs. Step 4: Therefore, it is true that the physician has the authority to increase the dose up to 40 mg per day based on the patient's condition and requirements.
Question 4 of 5
The right atrium myocytes secrete atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) when there is increased plasma volume. What actions does ANP take to produce a large volume of dilute urine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibits renin. ANP inhibits renin release, which leads to decreased aldosterone secretion. This results in decreased reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, promoting excretion of sodium and water, ultimately producing a large volume of dilute urine. Summary: B: Increases ADH - ANP actually opposes the action of ADH, which promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys. C: Inhibits angiotensin II action - ANP does inhibit the action of angiotensin II, but this does not directly lead to the production of dilute urine. D: Decreases sodium excretion - ANP actually increases sodium excretion by inhibiting renin and aldosterone, leading to decreased reabsorption of sodium.
Question 5 of 5
The mother of an 8-year-old girl has brought her child to the clinic because she is wetting the bed at night. What terminology should the nurse use when documenting this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct terminology for bedwetting in an 8-year-old is enuresis. Enuresis specifically refers to the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep at an age where bladder control is expected. This term is appropriate for the child's situation as it accurately describes the bedwetting issue. Ascites (A) refers to abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, not related to bedwetting. Dysuria (B) is painful urination, which is not the issue described. Urgency (D) refers to a sudden compelling need to urinate, which is also not relevant to this scenario. Using the correct term, enuresis, will ensure accurate documentation and communication regarding the child's bedwetting issue.