ATI RN
ATI the Immune System Test Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Why is plasmapheresis indicated in the treatment of autoimmune disorders?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Plasmapheresis is indicated in the treatment of autoimmune disorders because it is a procedure that involves removing plasma from the blood. The correct answer is C) Remove autoantibodies, antigen-antibody complexes, and inflammatory mediators of immune reactions. This is the correct answer because plasmapheresis helps to eliminate autoantibodies that are attacking the body's own tissues in autoimmune disorders. By removing autoantibodies, antigen-antibody complexes, and inflammatory mediators, plasmapheresis aims to reduce the overall burden of harmful components in the plasma that contribute to the autoimmune response. Option A) Obtain plasma for analysis and evaluation of specific autoantibodies is incorrect because plasmapheresis is not typically used solely for diagnostic purposes. It is primarily a therapeutic intervention aimed at reducing the pathogenic components in the blood. Option B) Decrease high lymphocyte levels in the blood to prevent immune responses is incorrect because plasmapheresis does not target lymphocytes specifically. While lymphocytes play a role in autoimmune responses, plasmapheresis is more focused on removing harmful antibodies and complexes. Option D) Add monocytes to the blood to promote removal of immune complexes by the mononuclear phagocyte system is incorrect because plasmapheresis does not involve adding cells to the blood. Instead, it is a process of removing plasma components that contribute to the autoimmune response. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind using plasmapheresis in autoimmune disorders is crucial for healthcare providers involved in managing patients with these conditions. By knowing how plasmapheresis works to remove pathogenic components from the blood, healthcare professionals can better explain the treatment to patients and understand its role in the overall management of autoimmune diseases.
Question 2 of 5
Which opportunistic disease associated with AIDS is characterized by hyperpigmented lesions of skin, lungs, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Kaposi sarcoma. Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) that often presents with hyperpigmented lesions on the skin, mucous membranes, lungs, and GI tract in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS. These lesions can be purple, brown, or red in color and are a hallmark of Kaposi sarcoma. Option B) Candida albicans is a fungal infection that commonly affects individuals with compromised immune systems, but it does not typically present with hyperpigmented lesions. Candidiasis is more commonly associated with white, patchy lesions in the mouth or genital area. Option C) Herpes simplex type 1 infection and Option D) Varicella-zoster virus infection both present with characteristic lesions (cold sores for herpes simplex and chickenpox or shingles for varicella-zoster), but these do not manifest as hyperpigmented lesions seen in Kaposi sarcoma. Understanding the characteristic presentations of opportunistic infections in individuals with AIDS is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment. Recognizing the specific signs and symptoms of each infection helps in timely diagnosis and management, ultimately improving patient outcomes and quality of life.
Question 3 of 5
What defect in cellular proliferation is involved in the development of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition. This option accurately describes a key defect in cellular proliferation that is involved in the development of cancer. Cancer cells lose the ability to stop dividing when they come into contact with other cells (contact inhibition) and continue to proliferate uncontrollably. Option A is incorrect because a rapid rate of cell proliferation alone is not indicative of cancer, as it can occur in normal physiological processes like wound healing. Option B is incorrect as skipping phases of the cell cycle is not a defining characteristic of cancer. Option C is incorrect as rearrangement of stem cell RNA leading to abnormal protein synthesis is not a common mechanism in the development of cancer. Educationally, understanding the defect in cellular proliferation that contributes to cancer development is crucial in pharmacology. By grasping this concept, healthcare professionals can comprehend the rationale behind anti-cancer drugs that target cell proliferation pathways. It also highlights the importance of regulating cell growth and division to prevent uncontrolled proliferation seen in cancer.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is counseling a group of individuals over the age of 50 with average risk for cancer about screening tests for cancer. Which screening recommendation should be performed to screen for colorectal cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of cancer screening for colorectal cancer in individuals over 50 with average risk, the appropriate recommendation is a colonoscopy every 10 years. This is the correct option because a colonoscopy is considered the gold standard for detecting colorectal cancer early, allowing for the removal of precancerous polyps before they develop into cancerous lesions. A) Barium enema every year is not the recommended screening test for colorectal cancer due to its lower sensitivity and specificity compared to colonoscopy. C) Fecal occult blood every 5 years may detect blood in the stool, which can indicate the presence of colorectal cancer, but it is not as comprehensive as a colonoscopy for detecting precancerous lesions and early-stage cancer. D) Annual prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam are screening tests for prostate cancer, not colorectal cancer, making this option incorrect in the context of the question. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind appropriate cancer screening tests is crucial for nurses to provide evidence-based recommendations to patients. It is essential to know the guidelines for different types of cancer screenings to ensure patients receive the most effective and timely interventions for early detection and prevention of cancer.
Question 5 of 5
The patient is learning about skin care related to the external radiation that he is receiving. Which instructions should the nurse include in this teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of skin care related to external radiation therapy, the correct instruction for the patient is to avoid exposure to extreme temperatures in the treated area (Option D). This is crucial because radiation therapy can make the skin more sensitive and prone to damage from temperature extremes. Option A (Moisturize skin with lotion) may seem like a reasonable choice, but it is not the priority in this case. While moisturizing can help maintain skin health, avoiding extreme temperatures is more critical to prevent further skin damage during radiation therapy. Option B (Keep the area covered if it is sore) may provide comfort and protection but does not address the potential harm from temperature extremes, which is the primary concern during radiation therapy. Option C (Dry the skin thoroughly after cleansing it) is not the best choice because excessive drying can further irritate the skin, especially when undergoing radiation therapy. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to emphasize the rationale behind each instruction given to patients undergoing radiation therapy to ensure optimal skin care and overall well-being during treatment. Patients must understand the specific precautions needed to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications associated with radiation therapy.