Why is osteoporosis much more common in elderly women than in elderly men?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density. Step 2: Estrogen helps regulate bone turnover and calcium balance. Step 3: Women experience a significant drop in estrogen levels after menopause. Step 4: Decreased estrogen production leads to increased bone resorption. Step 5: Men, on the other hand, continue to produce testosterone throughout their lifetime, which helps maintain bone density. Summary: A is correct because men maintain testosterone production, while women cease estrogen production after menopause, leading to a higher risk of osteoporosis in elderly women. B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the hormonal changes that contribute to osteoporosis gender disparity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymis. The epididymis is where maturing sperm gain increased motility and their ability to swim due to the presence of specific proteins and enzymes that facilitate this process. Sperm leave the seminiferous tubules in an immature state and undergo maturation in the epididymis through interactions with these proteins. The ductus deferens and ejaculatory duct are not involved in the maturation process of sperm and do not contribute to their motility. The seminiferous tubules are responsible for sperm production but not for the maturation of sperm motility.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Onset of menopause. Puberty is the period of sexual maturation and development, typically occurring in adolescence. Menopause, on the other hand, is the cessation of menstruation and fertility, usually happening in women in their late 40s or early 50s. During puberty in females, there is an increase in fat deposits beneath the skin, widening and lightening of the pelvis to prepare for childbirth, and development of the breasts as part of secondary sexual characteristics. Menopause does not occur during puberty; it is a separate phase in a woman's reproductive life cycle. Therefore, B is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, not FSH. Oogenesis produces ova/ovum, not FSH, LH, or prolactin. FSH and LH are hormones produced by the pituitary gland to regulate the menstrual cycle, not by the corpus luteum or involved in ova production. Prolactin is a hormone involved in milk production, not in oogenesis or corpus luteum function. Therefore, A is correct as it correctly identifies the function of the corpus luteum and the product of oogenesis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because days 6-14 of the uterine menstrual cycle correspond to the ovulation phase, where an egg is released from the ovary. This is a critical period for fertility. Choice A is incorrect as the perineum refers to the area between the anus and genitals, not a specific phase of the menstrual cycle. Choice B is incorrect as the mons pubis is a fatty tissue overlying the pubic bone, not a phase of the menstrual cycle. Choice C is incorrect as it is incomplete and lacks relevance to the menstrual cycle.