Why does the nurse assess for allergy to seafood during the initial assessment of a client with a disorder of the cardiovascular system?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B) It may indicate an allergy to iodine. When assessing a client with a cardiovascular disorder for seafood allergy, the nurse is primarily concerned about the potential cross-reactivity between seafood and iodine. Iodine is a component found in some contrast dyes used in cardiovascular diagnostic procedures like angiography. Individuals allergic to seafood, particularly shellfish, may also have an allergic reaction to iodine. This information is crucial for the nurse to prevent adverse reactions during diagnostic tests involving iodine-based contrast agents. Option A) It can contribute to cardiac symptoms is incorrect because a seafood allergy, in itself, does not directly contribute to cardiac symptoms unless an allergic reaction occurs due to iodine exposure during diagnostic procedures. Option C) It can contribute to drug interactions is incorrect as assessing seafood allergy is more related to iodine exposure during diagnostic tests rather than drug interactions in the context of cardiovascular disorders. Option D) It indicates a genetic predisposition to cardiac disorders is incorrect as a seafood allergy does not inherently suggest a genetic predisposition to cardiac disorders. Allergic reactions to iodine in seafood-allergic individuals are a specific concern in the cardiovascular setting. Educational Context: Understanding the importance of assessing for seafood allergy in cardiovascular patients is vital for nurses working in various healthcare settings. This knowledge ensures patient safety during diagnostic procedures involving iodine-based contrast media. Nurses need to be aware of potential cross-reactivity between seafood and iodine to prevent adverse reactions and provide optimal care for patients with cardiovascular disorders.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). In PTCA, a balloon-tipped catheter is used to compress the atherosclerotic plaque against the arterial wall, widening the diameter of the artery. This procedure helps to improve blood flow through the diseased coronary artery, relieving symptoms of angina and reducing the risk of a heart attack. Option A) Coronary stent is incorrect because a stent is a mesh-like tube inserted into the artery after angioplasty to help keep it open. It is not the initial procedure described in the question. Option B) Atherectomy involves removing plaque from the artery using a cutting device. This is different from the balloon angioplasty described in the question. Option D) Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure where blood flow is rerouted around blocked arteries using grafts. It is not the same as the minimally invasive PTCA procedure described. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for healthcare professionals working in cardiology to determine the most appropriate intervention for patients with coronary artery disease. PTCA is a common and effective procedure used to treat coronary artery blockages and is often performed in a cardiac catheterization lab by interventional cardiologists.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) A sudden drop in BP may occur during the first 1 to 3 hours after the initial dosage. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the management of hypertension and heart failure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. In clients with renal or hepatic impairment and older adults, these physiological changes can be more pronounced due to decreased drug clearance and altered metabolism. Monitoring ACE inhibitors cautiously in these populations is crucial to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, which can lead to adverse effects like dizziness, syncope, and falls. Option A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors typically lower blood pressure rather than raise it. Option C is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not affect body temperature. Option D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically raise pulse rate significantly. Educationally, understanding the pharmacokinetics and potential side effects of ACE inhibitors in specific populations is essential for safe medication administration and monitoring in clinical practice. Nurses must be vigilant in assessing for signs of hypotension and adverse effects when administering ACE inhibitors to clients with renal or hepatic impairment and older adults to provide safe and effective care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Heart biopsies are performed throughout a client's lifetime after heart transplantation primarily to detect rejection, which is the correct answer (A). Rejection is a significant concern post-transplant as the body's immune system may identify the new heart as a foreign entity and attack it. Detecting rejection early is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent potential organ failure. Option B, checking the rate of the heartbeat, is not the primary reason for heart biopsies post-transplant. While monitoring heart rate is important, it is more commonly done using non-invasive methods like ECG monitoring. Option C, checking heart functionality, is related to the purpose of heart biopsies but is not as specific as detecting rejection. Biopsies provide direct information on the presence of rejection, which can't always be accurately assessed through other means. Option D, checking for heart tumors, is not the main reason for heart biopsies post-transplant. While heart tumors are a consideration, the primary focus of biopsies is on detecting rejection due to its immediate threat to the transplanted organ. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind post-transplant monitoring, such as heart biopsies, is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the care of transplant patients. It highlights the importance of vigilance in detecting rejection early to optimize patient outcomes and ensure the long-term success of the transplant.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the case of a 26-year-old man with pericarditis, the most appropriate medication from the options provided would be C) Indomethacin, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Pericarditis is characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, the membrane surrounding the heart. NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for pericarditis due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which help reduce pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Option A, Atorvastatin, is a statin primarily used to lower cholesterol levels and would not be indicated for treating pericarditis. Option B, Low-molecular-weight heparin, is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots and would not be part of the standard treatment for pericarditis. Option D, Atenolol, is a beta blocker commonly used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions, but it is not typically prescribed for pericarditis unless there are specific underlying conditions that necessitate its use. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate medications for specific cardiovascular conditions is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective and evidence-based care to patients. Teaching students the rationale behind selecting the correct medication for a particular condition helps them develop critical thinking skills and clinical reasoning abilities essential for their future practice.