ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
Who should be involved in quality improvement measures?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quality improvement measures are most effective when everyone within an organization is involved. This includes not only professional and management staff but also consumers or customers who are directly impacted by the products or services being provided. By involving everyone, a more comprehensive and diverse perspective can be gained, leading to better identification of areas for improvement and more successful implementation of quality improvement initiatives. Additionally, by involving all stakeholders, there is a greater buy-in and commitment to the process, increasing the likelihood of sustainable improvements being made.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse obtains a sample of a client's arterial blood gas (ABGs). Which of the following statements is NOT true about ABGs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) do not directly assess the client's electrolyte and fluid balance. ABGs primarily evaluate the client's acid-base balance and oxygenation status by measuring levels of pH, partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2), and bicarbonate (HCO3) in the arterial blood. While ABGs can provide some information about blood parameters, such as oxygen saturation, they do not comprehensively assess electrolyte levels or fluid balance. To specifically assess electrolytes and fluid balance, additional tests like basic metabolic panels or comprehensive metabolic panels would be required.
Question 3 of 9
When a patient has pneumothorax, the nurse's assessment findings will likely reveal _______. I. absent breadth sounds on the affected side II. Decreased chest expansion unilaterally III. Sharp chest pain IV. Burning chest pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pneumothorax is a condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, which can lead to lung collapse. The nurse's assessment findings in a patient with pneumothorax are typically as follows:
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show transient ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain occurring during heavy lifting or physical exertion and being relieved by rest are classic characteristics of stable angina. Stable angina is caused by transient myocardial ischemia due to a fixed coronary artery obstruction. Typically, the pain is predictable and reproducible, occurring with exertion and relieved by rest. The transient ST-segment depression on ECG is also a common finding in stable angina, reflecting myocardial ischemia during episodes of chest pain.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following clinical manifestations will NOT be a complaint from Sarah's condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sarah's condition seems to be related to growth and wound healing issues, based on the provided clinical manifestations. Decrease libido is typically unrelated to conditions like edema, poor wound healing, and absence of growth in the pubic area. Therefore, it would not be a complaint stemming from Sarah's condition.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A family history of breast cancer is a known risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer. Individuals with a close relative (such as a mother, sister, or daughter) who has had breast cancer have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer. This increased risk is due to shared genetic factors that can predispose individuals to both breast and ovarian cancers. Therefore, having a family history of breast cancer is an important risk factor to consider in the assessment of ovarian cancer risk.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits. Imaging reveals a hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding within the subarachnoid space, the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater surrounding the brain. Patients typically present with a sudden-onset severe headache, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits due to the mass effect of the blood in the subarachnoid space. Imaging, such as a CT scan, can confirm the presence of the hemorrhagic lesion. Ischemic stroke results from a blockage in the blood vessels supplying the brain, leading to tissue infarction and neurological deficits. Subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, commonly seen following head trauma. Intracerebral hemorrhage involves bleeding within the brain tissue itself, often leading to focal neurological deficits.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for the management of heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with loop diuretic therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics such as furosemide are commonly prescribed for the management of heart failure to reduce fluid overload and lower blood pressure by increasing the excretion of sodium and water. These medications promote the loss of potassium through increased urinary output. Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels in the blood, is the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretic therapy. Potassium is an essential electrolyte for proper functioning of the heart, muscles, and nerves. Low potassium levels can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, cramps, and potentially life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Patients on loop diuretics are often monitored for potassium levels, and sometimes potassium supplements may be prescribed to prevent or correct hypokalemia.