ATI RN
Pediatric Respiratory Distress Nursing Interventions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Who is at the highest priority to receive the inactivated flu vaccine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric respiratory distress scenarios, administering the inactivated flu vaccine to individuals with the highest risk of complications is crucial. The correct answer is option A, the healthy 8-month-old who attends day care. This choice aligns with the priority to protect vulnerable populations, such as infants, who have underdeveloped immune systems and are more susceptible to severe flu-related complications. Option B, the 8-year-old with a history of Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS), is not the highest priority for the flu vaccine in this context. While individuals with a history of GBS should consult with their healthcare provider before vaccination, the immediate priority is to protect infants like the 8-month-old. Option C, the 7-year-old who attends public school, and option D, the 17-year-old living in a college dormitory, are also not the highest priority for the inactivated flu vaccine in this scenario. While these individuals may benefit from vaccination to prevent the spread of flu in communal settings, the 8-month-old has a higher risk of severe complications. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind prioritizing certain populations for vaccination is vital in pediatric nursing practice. It emphasizes the importance of evidence-based decision-making and targeted interventions to protect those most at risk in respiratory distress situations. Prioritizing vaccinations based on risk factors is a key aspect of providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients.
Question 2 of 5
Cyanosis in newborns is most commonly associated with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In newborns, cyanosis is a concerning sign of inadequate oxygenation. The correct answer is B) Cyanotic defects. Cyanotic defects are congenital heart defects that result in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, leading to cyanosis. Examples include Tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia. Option A) Acyanotic defects, on the other hand, do not typically present with cyanosis. Acyanotic defects include conditions like atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and patent ductus arteriosus, where oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix but do not cause cyanosis. Option C) Innocent murmurs are benign heart murmurs often heard in healthy children and do not cause cyanosis. These murmurs are typically soft, systolic, and do not indicate any structural abnormalities in the heart. Option D) Hypertension does not directly cause cyanosis in newborns. Hypertension may result from various factors but is not the primary cause of cyanosis in this patient population. Educationally, understanding the association of cyanosis with cyanotic defects in newborns is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing cyanosis early, understanding its potential causes, and promptly initiating appropriate interventions are essential to prevent adverse outcomes in infants with respiratory distress. Nurses play a vital role in assessing, monitoring, and advocating for infants with cyanosis, making this knowledge critical in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric respiratory distress cases, understanding the etiology of conditions like rheumatic fever is crucial for effective nursing interventions. The correct answer is C) Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. This bacterium, specifically the Streptococcus pyogenes strain, is responsible for causing rheumatic fever through an autoimmune response triggered by untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infections. Option A) Streptococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, a different bacterium than Group A streptococcus, and is associated with pneumonia and other respiratory infections, not rheumatic fever. Option B) Haemophilus influenza is a bacterium that can cause respiratory infections like pneumonia and bronchitis but is not linked to rheumatic fever. Option D) Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, as well as some respiratory infections, but it is not implicated in the development of rheumatic fever. Educationally, understanding the specific pathogens associated with different diseases is essential for nurses to provide accurate assessments, interventions, and patient education. In the case of rheumatic fever, recognizing the role of Group A streptococcus can help in early identification and treatment, potentially preventing serious complications.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements is true about leukemia in children
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A) Acute lymphocytic leukemia is associated with a cure rate of more than 80%. This statement is true as acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is the most common type of childhood leukemia and has a high cure rate, with modern treatments achieving cure rates exceeding 80%. Option B) is incorrect as chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is actually more common in adults than in children. Childhood leukemia most commonly presents as ALL. Option C) is incorrect because leukemia in children often has a rapid onset, with symptoms developing over a short period leading to a relatively quick diagnosis once medical attention is sought. Option D) is incorrect as leukemia is typically diagnosed through abnormal blood counts, such as low red blood cells, low platelets, and high white blood cell counts. A normal complete blood count (CBC) would not be indicative of leukemia. Educationally, understanding the differences between types of leukemia in children is crucial for healthcare providers caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing the characteristics, prognosis, and treatment options for childhood leukemia aids in early detection and appropriate intervention, ultimately improving patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
After birth, the newborn has to adapt to the new environment alongside with the changes in his physiological functioning. Certain cues are needed to identify that the newborn is well or problems are already present. Samantha, a graduating student nurse assists the doctor to a G1P0 woman giving birth in the lying-in clinic. Samantha knows that the newborn is in critical condition if:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cyanosis in a newborn indicates a lack of oxygen, which is a critical condition requiring immediate medical attention. Caput succedaneum (swelling of the scalp) and absence of foot creases are not immediate signs of critical condition, and while not crying can be concerning, cyanosis is a more definitive sign of distress.