While you are doing your physical assessment to patent Aster, she has been exhibiting a UNIQUE clinical manifestation different from patients Claire and Sonia which is characterized by________.

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Question 1 of 9

While you are doing your physical assessment to patent Aster, she has been exhibiting a UNIQUE clinical manifestation different from patients Claire and Sonia which is characterized by________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical manifestations of Aster suggest acromegaly, a condition characterized by the excessive growth of hands and feet due to a tumor in the pituitary gland leading to overproduction of growth hormone. Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by poor oxygenation, which is not typically associated with acromegaly. The other options do not match the unique clinical manifestation described for Aster. Anemia, weight loss, moon facies, and edema are more commonly associated with other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, anemia, or heart failure.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is the most common risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nulliparity, which refers to never having given birth to a child, is the most common risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. This association is believed to be related to the uninterrupted ovulation cycles that nulliparous women experience, leading to changes in the surface epithelium of the ovary that predispose them to cancer development. Conversely, factors like early menarche, late menopause, and a family history of breast cancer are also associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer but are not as commonly observed as nulliparity in the general population.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following are some elements of primary health care except?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Primary health care encompasses a wide range of essential health services. While services such as the use of appropriate technology, safe water supply, and maternal child care are components of primary health care, providing free medicines is not typically considered a core element. Primary health care emphasizes accessibility, affordability, and basic health services, but free medicines may not always be sustainable or feasible in every healthcare setting. Patients may be required to pay for medications, utilize health insurance, or receive medications through public health programs, rather than always receiving them for free.

Question 4 of 9

A woman in active labor is diagnosed with an amniotic fluid embolism. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An amniotic fluid embolism is a rare and life-threatening complication during labor and delivery. It occurs when amniotic fluid or fetal cells enter the maternal circulation, triggering a rapid immune response that can lead to cardiovascular collapse and respiratory failure. The priority nursing intervention for a woman in active labor diagnosed with an amniotic fluid embolism is to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to support her vital functions and circulation. Providing immediate CPR can help sustain her until further medical interventions can be implemented. Administering oxygen and preparing for a cesarean section may be necessary but should occur after CPR is initiated to stabilize the woman's condition. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in this emergency situation, as maintaining adequate cardiac and respiratory function takes precedence.

Question 5 of 9

Patient Presley who is ordered for diagnostic pelvic ultrasound asks what preparation she' 11 take. Appropriate preparations for this procedure include_________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: For a diagnostic pelvic ultrasound, one important preparation is to have the patient void or empty their bladder before the procedure. This allows for better visualization of the pelvic organs and structures during the ultrasound scan. A full bladder can obstruct the view and make it difficult to obtain accurate images. Therefore, it is essential for the patient to follow instructions to empty their bladder before the pelvic ultrasound to ensure the best results.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described in the question is classic for anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the iris and ciliary body and is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (redness around the iris), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light due to inflammation causing spasm of the iris muscles. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with similar symptoms but would also have increased intraocular pressure, which is not mentioned in the presentation. Endophthalmitis is an infection of the intraocular cavities and would typically present with more severe symptoms, such as severe pain, vision loss, and presence of pus in the eye. Corneal abrasion would present with pain, foreign body sensation, and possibly tearing but would not cause ciliary injection or fixed pupil reaction as

Question 7 of 9

You informed the mother about the normal psychosocial development of pre schoolers. She correctly understands your health teaching if she verbalizes that ________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Option A indicates an understanding of the normal psychosocial development of preschoolers. It reflects the fact that during this stage, children may demonstrate frustration and have temper tantrums as they strive for independence and attempt to do things by themselves. This behavior is a common part of their development as they learn self-control, autonomy, and decision-making skills. The other options do not directly relate to normal preschooler development but rather touch upon separate issues such as separation anxiety, possessiveness, and social behaviors that are not necessarily abnormal for preschoolers.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following statements is TRUE of Quality Improvement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Quality Improvement is a systematic approach that aims to continually enhance the quality of services or products within an organization. The statement that is true of Quality Improvement is that it focuses on continually improving every process in the organization (Option B). This includes processes related to patient care, organizational structure, and all aspects of operations. Quality Improvement involves identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, monitoring the effectiveness of those changes, and then making further refinements. By focusing on every process within the organization, Quality Improvement helps drive positive outcomes and ensures sustainable improvements in quality and performance.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of a family whose family coping index on therapeutic competence is rated as coping well?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Showing positive interpersonal relationships is the best evidence of a family coping well when their family coping index on therapeutic competence is rated as coping well. Positive interpersonal relationships indicate that family members are effectively communicating, supporting each other, and resolving conflicts in a healthy manner. This reflects strong family dynamics, emotional resilience, and adaptability which are important aspects of effective coping. While the other options (B, C, D) are beneficial activities or behaviors, positive interpersonal relationships directly demonstrate the family's ability to cope well together, making it the most relevant evidence for a high therapeutic competence rating.

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