ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
While waiting for cardiac transplantation, a patient with severe cardiomyopathy has a ventricular assist device (VAD) implanted. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should anticipate:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring the surgical incision for signs of infection is essential post-VAD implantation to prevent complications. This step is crucial in early identification and treatment of any potential infection, which can lead to serious outcomes. A) Giving immunosuppressive medications is not typically required for VAD implantation, as the primary goal is to support cardiac function rather than prevent rejection. B) Preparing the patient for a permanent VAD is premature, as the goal is often to bridge to transplantation or recovery, not permanent VAD placement. C) Teaching the patient the reason for complete bed rest is not necessary for VAD implantation, as patients are typically encouraged to gradually increase activity levels under guidance.
Question 2 of 5
An 81-year-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable, and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. The nurse will plan to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer. The new onset confusion in an elderly patient in the ICU can be a sign of delirium, which is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and management. By notifying the healthcare provider, they can assess the patient's condition, order appropriate tests, and adjust the treatment plan as needed. Postponing the transfer allows for further observation and intervention to address the underlying cause of the confusion. Choice A (Give PRN lorazepam and cancel the transfer) is incorrect because administering lorazepam may worsen the confusion in an elderly patient and should not be done without proper evaluation. Choice B (Inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient) is incorrect because transferring the patient without addressing the new onset confusion can lead to potential complications and delay in appropriate management. Choice D (Obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient) is incorrect because using restraints should only be considered as a
Question 3 of 5
A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is fighting the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator. This approach allows the nurse to address the patient's anxiety and help them synchronize their breathing with the ventilator, promoting better ventilation and oxygenation. It is important to first try non-invasive interventions before resorting to sedation or manual ventilation. Sedating the patient (B) should be a last resort to avoid potential complications. Manual ventilation (C) may disrupt the ventilator settings and cause respiratory distress. Increasing the rate of propofol infusion (D) is not indicated unless the patient's sedation level is inadequate.
Question 4 of 5
A patient’s vital signs are pulse 87, respirations 24, BP of 128/64 mm Hg, and cardiac output is 4.7 L/min. The patient’s stroke volume is ______ mL. (Round to the nearest whole number.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The stroke volume is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the heart rate. Given the cardiac output of 4.7 L/min and a heart rate of 87 bpm, the stroke volume is 54 mL (4700 mL/87 bpm ≈ 54 mL). Therefore, choice A (54) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated stroke volume based on the provided cardiac output and heart rate.
Question 5 of 5
A 19-year-old is brought to the emergency department (ED) with multiple lacerations and tissue avulsion of the left hand. When asked about tetanus immunization, the patient denies having any previous vaccinations. The nurse will anticipate giving:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient has a high-risk wound (tissue avulsion) and no documented prior tetanus vaccination. TIG provides immediate passive immunity to tetanus, while Tdap stimulates active immunity. TIG covers immediate needs, while Tdap ensures long-term immunity. Choice A (TIG only) does not provide long-term immunity. Choice B (TIG and Td) does not include pertussis coverage, which Tdap (Choice D) does. Choice C (Tdap only) does not cover immediate needs as TIG does.