ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
While waiting for cardiac transplantation, a patient with severe cardiomyopathy has a ventricular assist device (VAD) implanted. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should anticipate:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring the surgical incision for signs of infection is essential post-VAD implantation to prevent complications. This step is crucial in early identification and treatment of any potential infection, which can lead to serious outcomes. A) Giving immunosuppressive medications is not typically required for VAD implantation, as the primary goal is to support cardiac function rather than prevent rejection. B) Preparing the patient for a permanent VAD is premature, as the goal is often to bridge to transplantation or recovery, not permanent VAD placement. C) Teaching the patient the reason for complete bed rest is not necessary for VAD implantation, as patients are typically encouraged to gradually increase activity levels under guidance.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse has achieved certification in critical care nursing. What is the most important effect that this certification will have on the nurses practice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased confidence in critical thinking. Achieving certification in critical care nursing validates the nurse's expertise and knowledge in this specialized area, leading to increased confidence in their ability to critically think through complex patient situations. This confidence translates into improved clinical decision-making and patient outcomes. A: Recognition by peers - While recognition by peers is important for professional growth, the primary benefit of certification is enhancing clinical skills. B: Increase in salary and rank - While certification may lead to salary increases in some cases, the most significant impact is on improving clinical skills. C: More flexibility in seeking employment - While certification may enhance employability, the focus is on improving critical thinking skills rather than employment opportunities.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ptosis on the left eyelid. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid, which is a common condition in older adults. In this scenario, the nurse should document the finding as ptosis on the left eyelid because the client's left upper eyelid is drooping, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Explanation: Nystagmus (A) is an involuntary eye movement, not related to eyelid drooping. Exophthalmos (B) is the protrusion of the eyeball and not relevant to this scenario. Astigmatism (D) refers to a refractive error of the eye and does not cause eyelid drooping. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the client's condition.
Question 4 of 9
Acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postrenal acute kidney injury is caused by obstruction of urine flow, leading to pressure build-up in the kidneys and subsequent damage. Obstructions can be due to conditions such as kidney stones, tumors, or enlarged prostate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they relate to pre-renal and intrinsic renal causes of acute kidney injury, not specifically postrenal obstruction. B refers to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, C to low volume or poor heart function affecting kidney perfusion, and D to direct damage to kidney tissue, which do not characterize postrenal etiology.
Question 5 of 9
Which statement is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. This statement is true because proper oral care, including brushing teeth, oral suctioning, and using chlorhexidine gluconate, has been shown to reduce the risk of VAP by decreasing the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the oral cavity. Regular oral care helps maintain oral hygiene and reduce the risk of aspiration of bacteria into the lungs, which is a common cause of VAP. Incorrect Answer Analysis: A: Tooth brushing every 2 hours may be excessive and could potentially cause harm to the oral mucosa, leading to increased risk of infection. C: While oral suctioning and brushing teeth are important components of oral care, the statement is not comprehensive enough to address the full range of interventions needed to prevent VAP. D: While chlorhexidine gluconate can be effective in preventing VAP, the statement implies that it is the only effective intervention, which is not true.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous reabsiprbi.rcaotmio/tensst are 12 breaths/min. After receiving a dose of morphine sulfate, respirations decrease to 4 breaths/min. Which acid-base disturbance will likely occur?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Respiratory alkalosis). Morphine sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to decreased respiratory rate. In this case, the patient's breaths decrease from 12 to 4 breaths/min, indicating hypoventilation. With decreased ventilation, there is less CO2 elimination, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. The other choices can be ruled out: A (Metabolic acidosis) and B (Metabolic alkalosis) are less likely caused by morphine sulfate, and C (Respiratory acidosis) is incorrect because the scenario describes hypoventilation, not hyperventilation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient on mechanical ventilation is experiencing severe agitation due to being on the ventilator. Which nursing intervention would be best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offering the patient a patient-controlled analgesic device. This intervention allows the patient to self-administer pain relief, which can help alleviate discomfort associated with mechanical ventilation and reduce agitation. Breathing exercises (choice A) may not address the root cause of agitation. Asking for antianxiety medication (choice C) may not be immediate or ideal due to potential side effects. Offering an MP3 player (choice D) may provide distraction but may not effectively address the agitation caused by the ventilator.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. This is the most appropriate option for immediate hemodialysis when the patient has no vascular access. A percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside, allowing for immediate initiation of hemodialysis. Choice B, a percutaneous tunneled catheter, involves a more complex insertion process and is not typically done at the bedside. Choices C and D, arteriovenous fistula and arteriovenous graft, require advanced planning and surgical procedures, making them unsuitable for immediate hemodialysis in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements regarding pain and anxiety are true? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Correct. Anxiety is characterized by apprehension, agitation, autonomic arousal, and fearful withdrawal, which are distinct from pain. B: Incorrect. Critically ill patients can experience both anxiety and pain, as pain is not exclusive to them. C: Incorrect. While pain and anxiety can be interrelated, they can be differentiated based on their unique physiological and behavioral manifestations. D: Incorrect. Pain is a subjective experience, but it is not solely defined by the individual; objective assessments are also important.