Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Asking the patient about usual sleep patterns and the onset of having difficulty resting is the best action for the nurse to take. This allows the nurse to gather more information and assess if there is a possible correlation between the leg cast and the restless sleep. It is important to consider all aspects of the patient's condition and not dismiss any symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because telling the patient to just focus on the leg and cast disregards the patient's concerns about restless sleep. Choice B is incorrect as simply documenting the information without further assessment does not address the patient's issue. Choice C is incorrect as postponing a thorough assessment to the next shift may delay necessary intervention for the patient's sleep problem.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoventilation. In chronic respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot effectively eliminate carbon dioxide, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, causing acidosis. Hypoventilation results in decreased removal of CO2, exacerbating the acidosis. A: Hyperventilation would lead to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. B: Loss of acid by kidneys would result in metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis. D: Loss of base by kidneys would lead to metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis. In summary, the main issue in chronic respiratory acidosis is inadequate elimination of CO2 due to hypoventilation, leading to acidosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. This helps counteract the dangerous drop in blood pressure and airway constriction seen in anaphylaxis. Digoxin, theophylline, and furosemide are not appropriate for anaphylaxis as they do not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures. Step 2: Anticonvulsants are often given before surgery to reduce the risk of seizures during and after the procedure. Step 3: In the context of intracranial surgery, controlling seizures is crucial to prevent complications like increased intracranial pressure. Step 4: Therefore, administering phenytoin before surgery helps in reducing the risk of seizures before and after the procedure. Summary: - Option B (avoid intraoperative complications) is too broad and doesn't directly relate to the use of phenytoin. - Option C (reduce cerebral edema) is not the primary indication for phenytoin in this scenario. - Option D (prevent postoperative vomiting) is not a common reason for administering phenytoin before intracranial surgery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless hematuria. This is an early indicator of bladder cancer because blood in the urine without pain is a common symptom in the early stages of the disease. Nocturia (B), frequent urination at night, is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Occasional polyuria (C), excessive urination, can be a symptom of diabetes or kidney disease. Dysuria (D), painful urination, is more indicative of urinary tract infections or urethritis. Therefore, painless hematuria is the most specific early indicator of bladder cancer among the choices provided.