ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patients health history is most likely to be linked to the patients hearing deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous perforation of the eardrum. A perforated eardrum can lead to hearing loss as it affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. This is the most likely link to the patient's hearing deficit as trauma or injury to the eardrum can directly impact hearing. Incorrect choices: A: Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer - Radiation therapy for thyroid cancer typically does not directly affect hearing. B: Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps - Quinine use is associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) but not typically with hearing loss. C: Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray - Allergy to hair products is not directly related to hearing loss. In summary, the most likely cause of the patient's hearing deficit based on the health history provided is the previous perforation of the eardrum, as it directly affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Question 2 of 9
In providing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Saturated fat should be limited to less than 7% of total calories. This is because limiting saturated fat intake is crucial in managing type 1 diabetes to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Saturated fats can worsen insulin resistance and lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as diabetic management involves more than just insulin. Choice C is incorrect because nonnutritive sweeteners should be used in moderation due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with diabetes should aim to keep cholesterol intake low to prevent heart problems.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple- lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution. The first lumen inflates the balloon to secure the catheter in place. The second lumen allows continuous inflow of irrigation solution to prevent clot formation. The third lumen allows continuous outflow to ensure the bladder is continuously irrigated. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the functions of the three lumens in a transurethral resection of the prostate procedure.
Question 4 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teaching patients to wear sunscreen, which is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs by addressing risk factors. In this case, teaching patients to wear sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer by reducing exposure to harmful UV rays. Yearly Pap tests (A) are a secondary prevention measure for cervical cancer, detecting precancerous changes. Testicular self-examination (B) is a form of secondary prevention for testicular cancer, aiming to detect any abnormalities early. Screening mammograms (D) are also a secondary prevention measure for breast cancer, detecting tumors at an early stage.
Question 5 of 9
On otoscopy, a red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholesteatoma. A red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is indicative of a cholesteatoma, which is a noncancerous cyst in the middle ear. This occurs due to the accumulation of skin cells and debris in the middle ear space. Other choices (A, C, D) are not associated with a red blemish on otoscopy. An acoustic tumor (A) typically presents as a slow-growing mass on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Facial nerve neuroma (C) involves the facial nerve and does not typically cause a red blemish. Glomus tympanicum (D) is a vascular tumor arising from the middle ear but does not usually present as a red blemish.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is watching a nursing assistive personnel(NAP) perform a postvoid bladder scan on a female with a previous hysterectomy. Which action will require the nurse to follow up?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because setting the scanner to female is incorrect for a patient who has had a hysterectomy as they do not have a uterus. This could lead to inaccurate results. Palpating the symphysis pubis (A) ensures proper positioning, wiping the scanner head with alcohol (B) maintains infection control, and applying gel (C) facilitates sound wave transmission.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the patient is resting. This is because the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease is most noticeable when the patient is at rest due to the characteristic "resting tremor" seen in this condition. The tremor tends to lessen or disappear with purposeful movements or activities, making it more difficult to assess during ambulation, meal preparation, or occupational therapy. By observing the patient at rest, the nurse can accurately assess the presence and severity of the tremor, which is a key diagnostic feature of Parkinson's disease. Other answer choices are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal condition for assessing the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.
Question 9 of 9
Which finding in the exam of a patient with a diagnosis of threatened abortion would change the diagnosis to inevitable abortion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear fluid from vagina. In threatened abortion, there is vaginal bleeding but the cervix is closed, indicating the possibility of the pregnancy continuing. If clear fluid is present, it suggests rupture of the amniotic sac, leading to inevitable abortion. Backache (A) and pelvic pressure (D) can be common symptoms in both threatened and inevitable abortion. A rise in hCG level (B) alone does not indicate a change from threatened to inevitable abortion.