ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
While positioning the patient for surgery, the nurse notices that the patient's arms are not adequately padded. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If the nurse notices that the patient's arms are not adequately padded while positioning for surgery, the nurse should immediately take action to prevent pressure injuries. Applying soft padding to the patient's arms will help distribute the pressure more evenly, reducing the risk of skin breakdown and potential harm to the patient during the surgical procedure. It is essential to prioritize the patient's safety and comfort in such situations. Simply proceeding with the positioning as planned could lead to complications, so addressing the inadequate padding promptly is the appropriate course of action.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following salivary glands is located inferior and posterior to the mandible and produces serous saliva rich in enzymes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The submandibular gland is located inferior and posterior to the mandible. It produces a mixed type of saliva, which is primarily serous (enzyme-rich) but also contains some mucous components. This gland plays a significant role in digestion, as its serous saliva contains enzymes such as amylase that help break down carbohydrates in the mouth before they reach the stomach.
Question 3 of 9
Ms. Nena suggested to use an analytic approach in their research. Which of the following statements BEST describes the analytic approach?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The analytic approach refers to a method that views factors that influence health and by which interventions to improve health are directed. In this case, utilizing an analytic approach in the research means looking into the root causes of the health problems in the community, analyzing various factors that contribute to the prevalence of obesity and heart ailments, and developing targeted interventions to address these issues effectively. This approach involves identifying underlying reasons for health problems and strategically planning interventions to improve the health outcomes of the community.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse knows that a dog bite has a shorter incubation for rabies if located in the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabies has a shorter incubation period if the bite is located on the hand. This is because bites on the hand are more likely to have direct access to nerve pathways, which can lead to a faster spread of the rabies virus to the central nervous system. In general, bites on parts of the body closer to the brain and spinal cord, such as the hand and face, can result in a quicker onset of rabies symptoms compared to bites on farther extremities like the leg or abdomen.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Ime, is a member of the Quality Assurance team of the hospital and has been always rated as very assertive. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an assertive person?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Being assertive means expressing one's thoughts, beliefs, and feelings in a confident and respectful manner while also considering the perspective of others. It does not involve pushing control on others. Assertive individuals do not impose their beliefs on others but express themselves clearly and confidently, respecting the opinions of others. So, standing up for what one believes in can be assertive, but pushing control on others is not a characteristic of assertiveness.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse TEACH the patient's care giver regarding tracheostomy care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cleaning the inner cannula daily helps prevent the accumulation of secretions and debris, which can lead to blockages and infections. It is an essential aspect of tracheostomy care to maintain the patency of the airway and prevent complications. Caregivers should be taught how to safely remove, clean, and reinsert the inner cannula as part of routine tracheostomy care.
Question 8 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage lung disease experiences dyspnea and anxiety. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the patient diaphragmatic breathing exercises for respiratory support would be the most appropriate intervention to address the symptoms of dyspnea and anxiety in this scenario. Diaphragmatic breathing, also known as belly breathing, focuses on engaging the diaphragm for deep, slow breaths, which can help improve lung expansion and ventilation. This technique can help the patient manage their breathing difficulty and reduce anxiety by promoting relaxation and improving oxygen exchange in the lungs. It empowers the patient with a coping strategy they can use independently to alleviate distressing symptoms at any time. Administering oxygen therapy may be beneficial, but the priority is to teach the patient a technique they can use proactively and routinely. Prescribing benzodiazepines should be considered as an adjunct if non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective in managing anxiety. Referring to a pulmonologist may be necessary for comprehensive evaluation and treatment but may not directly address the immediate symptoms of dyspnea and anxiety.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye, along with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels, is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In CRAO, there is a sudden blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to ischemia of the retina. The cherry-red spot represents the preserved choroid blood flow against the ischemic retina. The attenuated retinal vessels are a result of decreased blood flow in the retinal circulation. This condition is considered an ophthalmic emergency and requires immediate evaluation and management to prevent permanent vision loss.