ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
While performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and the light reflex is not visible. The most likely cause is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: acute otitis media. In this case, the presentation of a bright red tympanic membrane and absence of the light reflex are indicative of inflammation and fluid accumulation in the middle ear, which are classic signs of acute otitis media. This condition commonly occurs in young children, especially after a recent upper respiratory infection. Incorrect choices: A: Fungal infection is less likely in this case as the symptoms are more consistent with acute bacterial infection seen in otitis media. C: Rupture of the drum would typically present with sudden relief of pain and discharge from the ear, which is not described in the scenario. D: Blood behind the drum (hemotympanum) is uncommon in children with acute otitis media and would usually be associated with trauma or barotrauma.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old patient with head injuries from a recent motor vehicle accident. Which of the following statements indicates the most important reason for assessing for any drainage from the canal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. 2. Basal skull fractures can cause cerebrospinal fluid leakage, leading to clear watery drainage. 3. Blood in the ear canal can suggest a temporal bone fracture. 4. Assessing for drainage helps identify potential serious head injuries. Summary: A. Incorrect. Purulent drainage indicates infection, not related to head injuries. C. Incorrect. Increased cerumen is not the priority in assessing head injuries. D. Incorrect. Foreign bodies in the canal are not the primary concern in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 4 of 9
A 17-year-old student is a swimmer on her high school's swim team. She has had three bouts of otitis externa so far this season and wants to know how to prevent it. The nurse instructs her to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops help to maintain the pH balance in the ear canal, making it less conducive to bacterial growth. 2. These eardrops also help to dry out excess moisture, reducing the risk of otitis externa. 3. By using these eardrops after every swim, the student can prevent the recurrence of otitis externa. Summary of other choices: A: Using a cotton-tipped swab can push wax deeper into the ear canal, increasing the risk of infection. C: Irrigating the ears can introduce water into the ear canal, potentially worsening the condition. D: Mineral oil and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on the delicate skin of the ear canal, causing irritation.
Question 5 of 9
To assess colour vision in a male child, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testing for color vision once between the ages of 4 and 8 is appropriate to assess any potential color vision deficiencies. This age range is crucial as color vision development is mostly completed by the age of 8. Annual checks (A) are not necessary unless there are specific concerns. Asking the child to identify clothing color (B) may not be a reliable indicator of color vision deficiency. No information is provided for option D.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is testing a patient's visual accommodation, which refers to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Visual accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust focus when shifting gaze between objects at different distances. The correct answer is A, pupillary constriction when looking at a near object, as this is a key component of visual accommodation. When looking at a near object, the eye needs to adjust its focus by constricting the pupil to allow more depth of field and clearer vision. This process helps in bringing near objects into focus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object is not related to visual accommodation, as the pupil dilates in low light conditions to allow more light to enter the eye. C: Changes in peripheral vision in response to light is not related to visual accommodation, as peripheral vision refers to the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight. D: Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light is a protective reflex to shield the eyes from excessive light and is not directly related to visual
Question 7 of 9
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 9 of 9
A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red and circular with central clearing, and is located across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lyme disease. The presentation of a red circular rash with central clearing, known as erythema migrans, following a hiking trip in the summer is highly indicative of Lyme disease. The specific distribution of the rash across the midriff and behind the knees aligns with typical areas where the rash appears in Lyme disease cases. This rash is a hallmark sign of early Lyme disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Other answer choices are incorrect because rubeola presents with a different rash pattern, an allergy to mosquito bites would not typically present in this manner, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever typically presents with a different rash appearance and distribution.