While performing the admission assessment of a new client, the nurse observed that the client brought a bottle of over-the-counter pain medication to the hospital. The nurse failed to document this or remove the medication from the room. Subsequently, the client experienced a serious adverse drug reaction as a result of the interaction between this drug and one of the drugs that the client was prescribed in the hospital. This nurse may be guilty of what?

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Question 1 of 9

While performing the admission assessment of a new client, the nurse observed that the client brought a bottle of over-the-counter pain medication to the hospital. The nurse failed to document this or remove the medication from the room. Subsequently, the client experienced a serious adverse drug reaction as a result of the interaction between this drug and one of the drugs that the client was prescribed in the hospital. This nurse may be guilty of what?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malpractice. The nurse's failure to document and remove the over-the-counter medication, which led to a serious adverse drug reaction, constitutes malpractice. Malpractice refers to negligence or failure to provide the standard of care expected in a professional setting. In this case, the nurse's actions directly resulted in harm to the client, which is a clear example of malpractice. Incorrect Choices: B: Failure of duty to warn - This choice implies that the nurse had a duty to warn the client about the potential drug interaction, which may not necessarily be the case. The primary issue here is the nurse's failure to document and remove the medication, not a failure to warn. C: Assault - Assault involves intentional harm or threat of harm, which is not applicable in this scenario where the harm was due to negligence. D: Incompetence - While the nurse's actions may demonstrate incompetence, the more specific legal term for this situation would be malpractice, as it directly

Question 2 of 9

Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.

Question 3 of 9

A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following structures is responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food during mastication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teeth. Teeth are responsible for the initial mechanical breakdown of food during mastication. Step 1: Teeth use their hard surfaces to chew and grind food into smaller pieces. Step 2: This process increases the surface area of the food, making it easier for digestive enzymes to break down. Step 3: The tongue aids in moving the food around the mouth but does not break down the food mechanically. Pharynx is responsible for swallowing, not mastication. Salivary glands produce saliva that helps in the lubrication and digestion of food, but they do not directly participate in the mechanical breakdown of food.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with petechiae, ecchymoses, and gingival bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acquired von Willebrand syndrome. This condition is characterized by a defect in von Willebrand factor function, leading to prolonged bleeding time and mucocutaneous bleeding. Normal platelet count rules out Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome which are platelet disorders. Normal PT and aPTT rule out Hemophilia A, a coagulation factor deficiency. Acquired von Willebrand syndrome is the most likely cause based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings.

Question 7 of 9

To begin your discussion, you explain to her that the endocrine glands include, which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes all the major endocrine glands: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreatic islets, and hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" as it controls other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism, while the parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels. The adrenal glands produce hormones involved in stress response. Pancreatic islets produce insulin and glucagon. The hypothalamus plays a key role in hormone regulation. Choice B is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes, which are not endocrine glands. Choice C is incorrect because it omits the hypothalamus. Choice D is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes which are not endocrine glands.

Question 8 of 9

Physiologically, what happens to the brain as Alzheimer progresses?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cells die. In Alzheimer's disease, there is a progressive degeneration of brain cells, leading to cell death. This results in a loss of important brain functions such as memory, cognition, and eventually, bodily functions. The atrophy of the brain stem (choice A) is not a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's. Fluid buildup (choice B) is not a primary mechanism of the disease. Tissue swelling (choice D) is not typically associated with the progression of Alzheimer's; rather, there is a gradual loss of brain tissue due to cell death.

Question 9 of 9

What type of sampling wills Nurse Sandy adopts 11 when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.

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