While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?

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Question 1 of 9

While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Whispering two-syllable words ensures a low volume, requiring the patient to focus on clarity. 2. Asking the patient to repeat tests their ability to hear and understand the whispered words accurately. 3. Whispering helps eliminate the influence of lip-reading, ensuring accurate assessment. Summary: A: Shielding the lips while speaking would hinder the patient's ability to hear clearly. C: Placing a finger in the ear would not be appropriate as it could affect the accuracy of the test. D: Standing at a specific distance does not ensure accurate assessment of hearing ability.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is performing an eye assessment on an 80-year-old patient. Which of the following findings is considered abnormal?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because unequal pupillary constriction in response to light is abnormal and may indicate nerve damage or neurological issues. A: Decrease in tear production is common with age. C: Arcus senilis is a normal age-related change. D: Loss of hair at the outer line of the eyebrows is also a common age-related change.

Question 3 of 9

A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.

Question 5 of 9

During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse would expect to find:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased ability to identify odors. As people age, their sense of smell tends to decline due to changes in the olfactory system. This is a common phenomenon in older adults and can impact their overall quality of life. The other choices are incorrect because hypertrophy of the gums (A) is not a typical finding in older adults, increased production of saliva (B) is not directly related to aging, and finer and less prominent nasal hair (D) is not a definitive characteristic of older age.

Question 6 of 9

A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with excruciating pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek, that occurs once or twice each day and lasts about 30 minutes to 2 hours. The nurse suspects:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain on one side of the head, often around the eye, forehead, and cheek. They occur once or twice each day and last for a relatively short duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours. This pattern of symptoms aligns with the typical presentation of cluster headaches. Incorrect Choices: A: Hypertension is unlikely to present with such specific unilateral head pain patterns and timing. C: Tension headaches typically present with more diffuse, mild to moderate pain and are not typically associated with eye, forehead, or cheek pain. D: Migraine headaches usually last longer than 2 hours and are commonly associated with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound.

Question 8 of 9

A mother is concerned that her 18-month-old already has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. At 18 months, it is expected for a child to have erupted around 16 deciduous teeth. The rationale for this answer is based on dental development milestones. By age 3, most children should have their full set of 20 primary teeth. Therefore, the nurse should inform the mother that it is normal for an 18-month-old to have around 16 teeth. Choice A is incorrect as comparing the mother's teeth at that age is irrelevant to the child's dental development. Choice B is incorrect because all 20 deciduous teeth should be present by age 3, not 4. Choice C is incorrect as having 12 teeth at 18 months is below the expected number of erupted teeth for that age.

Question 9 of 9

While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Whispering two-syllable words ensures a low volume, requiring the patient to focus on clarity. 2. Asking the patient to repeat tests their ability to hear and understand the whispered words accurately. 3. Whispering helps eliminate the influence of lip-reading, ensuring accurate assessment. Summary: A: Shielding the lips while speaking would hinder the patient's ability to hear clearly. C: Placing a finger in the ear would not be appropriate as it could affect the accuracy of the test. D: Standing at a specific distance does not ensure accurate assessment of hearing ability.

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