ATI RN
Normal Anatomy and Physiology of the Female Pelvis Questions
Question 1 of 5
While performing a self-breast exam, the patient notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a new nodular area with tenderness in the breast is concerning for a potential breast abnormality or pathology. The nurse should advise the patient to report these findings promptly to a healthcare provider for further evaluation, which may include a clinical breast exam, imaging studies, and possibly a biopsy if warranted. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because B jumps to a conclusion without proper assessment or evaluation, C downplays the significance of the findings without proper validation, and D provides inaccurate information about the association of tenderness with ovulation, which is not relevant in this context.
Question 2 of 5
Which statement regarding primary dysmenorrhea is most accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because primary dysmenorrhea is often caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production, leading to increased uterine contractions and pain. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. A: Incorrect. Not all women experience primary dysmenorrhea; it varies in prevalence. B: Incorrect. Oral contraceptives can help manage dysmenorrhea by reducing prostaglandin production. C: Incorrect. Primary dysmenorrhea is more common in nulliparous women, not multiparous women. In summary, D is correct due to the established link between excessive prostaglandin and primary dysmenorrhea, while the other choices are inaccurate based on current knowledge and research.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
The drug of choice to treat a gonorrhea infection is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacteria called Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 2. Over time, Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed resistance to penicillin and tetracycline. 3. Ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment due to its effectiveness against resistant strains. 4. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Summary: - Penicillin and tetracycline are no longer effective due to resistance. - Ceftriaxone is the current drug of choice for gonorrhea treatment. - Acyclovir is not used for bacterial infections like gonorrhea.
Question 5 of 5
You are taking care of a patient who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician. This is a priority assessment because leaving the vaginal packing in place for too long can lead to complications such as infection or tissue damage. It is important to follow the physician's orders for timely removal to prevent these risks. A: Documentation of a pessary in the operative notes is important for accuracy but not a priority assessment in the postoperative period. C: The use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy is not directly related to the immediate postoperative care of a colporrhaphy patient and is not a priority assessment in this context. D: The removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure is important but not as time-sensitive as the removal of vaginal packing. It can be done at a later stage without immediate risk to the patient.