ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
While patient Sarah is confined in the hospital, the safety measure to be observed by the nurses is prevention from fall. This is brought about by the patient being prone to fracture as a result of________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of throat pain, odynophagia, and fever. Physical examination reveals tonsillar enlargement with yellow-white exudates and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS). GAS is the most likely organism responsible for this presentation, known as acute bacterial tonsillitis. GAS commonly causes symptoms such as throat pain, odynophagia, fever, tonsillar enlargement with exudates, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Streptococcal pharyngitis is a common bacterial infection of the throat caused by GAS. The other options are less likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae typically causes pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae is associated with respiratory tract infections. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, which presents with different symptoms than those described in the question.
Question 3 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 4 of 9
The Nurse asks Baste, who is being admitted in a district hospital with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, about his employment status. She knows that _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A person's compliance with diabetes management can be influenced by economic status, as financial concerns can impact access to medications, healthy food, and healthcare. This can affect treatment adherence and overall health outcomes. Choice A is correct because addressing economic factors is important in promoting compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the relationship between economic status and compliance with diabetes management.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse has a complaint from a parent for administering gwrong dose of vaccine to the child. This act is a form of _______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would under similar circumstances. In this case, administering the wrong dose of a vaccine indicates a lack of proper care or attention to detail, which constitutes negligence. A: Battery involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is not applicable in this situation. C: Assault involves the threat of harm or unwanted physical contact, which is also not relevant here. D: Malpractice typically refers to professional misconduct or negligence by a healthcare provider, which could be a broader term but not specific to the situation described.
Question 6 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing infection in the foot ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is correct as keeping the ulcer covered with a sterile dressing provides a barrier against pathogens, promoting wound healing and preventing infection. A (topical antibiotics) can lead to resistance and disrupt normal flora. B (daily wound debridement) may introduce pathogens and delay healing. D (oral antibiotics prophylactically) is not recommended without evidence of infection.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 9 of 9
There is an outbreak of measles in some areas of the community where Nurse Rona is assigned. Which of the following-steps of an outbreak investigation should Nurse Rona and her team begin ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Identify and count cases. In the initial stages of an outbreak investigation, it is crucial to identify and count cases to understand the scope and magnitude of the outbreak. By counting cases, Nurse Rona and her team can track the spread of the disease, identify common characteristics among those affected, and determine the extent of the outbreak. This step helps in guiding further investigation and control measures. Summary of other choices: B: Define and identify cases - While defining cases is important, it is not the initial step in outbreak investigation. C: Verify diagnosis - Verifying diagnosis is important but comes after identifying and counting cases. D: Prepare for field work - Field work is important in outbreak investigations, but it typically comes after the initial step of identifying and counting cases.