ATI RN
health assessment test bank jarvis Questions
Question 1 of 9
While obtaining the history from the mother of a 2-year-old with pneumonia, the nurse asks the mother if she smoked or used drugs during her pregnancy. Her response is, "What does that have to do with pneumonia?" How would the nurse answer her question?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because understanding the mother's pregnancy history can provide crucial insights into potential risk factors or exposures that could have contributed to the child's pneumonia. By knowing about the mother's smoking or drug use during pregnancy, the healthcare team can better assess the child's overall health and potential underlying conditions. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of the question and fails to address the potential significance of the information. Choice B is incorrect as it downplays the relevance of the question, which is essential for gathering comprehensive information for the child's care. Choice C is incorrect as it makes an unsupported and potentially misleading statement about the direct cause of pneumonia without considering other factors.
Question 2 of 9
When listening to a patient's breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is hearThe nurse should:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because validating the data by asking a colleague to listen to the breath sounds helps to ensure accuracy and reliability. It allows for a second opinion to confirm the nurse's assessment and prevents any potential misinterpretation. This collaborative approach promotes patient safety and quality care. Choices A and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate need for validation and may delay appropriate intervention. Choice B is also incorrect as it does not ensure the accuracy of the assessment and may lead to miscommunication or incorrect treatment decisions.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most important nursing intervention for a client with severe dehydration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. This is the most important nursing intervention for a client with severe dehydration because IV fluids provide rapid rehydration and help restore electrolyte balance efficiently. Monitoring vital signs (choice B) is important but not as crucial as providing immediate fluid replacement. Providing oral rehydration (choice C) may not be effective for severe dehydration as the client may have difficulty absorbing fluids orally. Administering oxygen (choice D) is not directly related to treating dehydration, so it is not the most important intervention in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
What is the most effective action when a client presents with acute shortness of breath and a history of COPD?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. In acute shortness of breath with COPD, oxygen therapy is crucial to improve oxygenation levels and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen can help reduce the workload on the lungs and heart. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated unless there is a suspected bacterial infection. Monitoring blood glucose (C) is important in diabetes management but not the priority in acute respiratory distress. Administering pain relief (D) may not address the underlying cause of the shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy directly targets the respiratory issue in COPD exacerbation, making it the most effective initial intervention.
Question 5 of 9
What is the primary concern for a nurse caring for a client who is post-operative and experiencing confusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reorient the client. Reorientation helps the confused client regain awareness of their surroundings, time, and situation post-operatively. It can improve their cognition and reduce anxiety. Notifying the healthcare provider (A) may be necessary but not the primary concern. Increasing circulation (C) is important but not the first step for a confused post-op client. Assessing pain (D) is important but addressing confusion takes precedence.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of culturally competent care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Culturally competent care involves applying knowledge, skills, attitudes, and personal attributes to provide respectful and effective care. Step 2: Understanding and speaking the patient's mother tongue (Option A) is important but not sufficient for culturally competent care. Step 3: Possessing basic knowledge of the patient's cultural background (Option B) is helpful, but not comprehensive enough to ensure culturally competent care. Step 4: Having knowledge of the significance of social, economic, and cultural contexts (Option C) is crucial but does not encompass the full scope of culturally competent care. Step 5: The correct answer, D, encompasses the holistic approach needed for culturally competent care by emphasizing the application of knowledge, skills, attitudes, and personal attributes to maximize respect and care.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the clinical practice guidelines for infants and children for a periodic health examination?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clinical practice guidelines for periodic health examinations provide a frequency schedule for health visits based on age. This is crucial for ensuring timely preventive care and monitoring of growth and development. Choice A is incorrect as guidelines focus on preventive care, not diagnosing illnesses. Choice B is incorrect because while guidelines may mention developmental milestones, their primary focus is on health maintenance. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend health visits based on individual needs, not a one-size-fits-all annual physical examination.
Question 8 of 9
How many teeth should an 18-month-old child have?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 12. At 18 months, a child should have 12 teeth, which include 8 incisors and 4 molars. This is because children typically start teething around 6 months, with the lower central incisors coming first. By 18 months, they should have all 8 incisors and usually the first set of molars. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical dental development timeline for children. Having only 6, 8, or 16 teeth at 18 months would indicate a delay or abnormality in dental growth.
Question 9 of 9
What does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because HIPAA regulates the privacy and security of protected health information. This includes how healthcare providers, insurers, and other entities handle and safeguard patient information to ensure confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect as HIPAA does not dictate who provides client care. Choice C is incorrect as HIPAA focuses on the protection of health information, not how insurance information is obtained. Choice D is incorrect as HIPAA does not specify where a chart can be stored, but rather how the information within it is protected.