While obtaining subjective assessment data from a patient with hypertension the nurse recognizes that a modifiable risk factor for the development of hypertension is?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Excess alcohol intake. Alcohol consumption can contribute to the development of hypertension by increasing blood pressure and damaging the arteries over time. Excessive alcohol intake can also lead to weight gain and other unhealthy lifestyle choices that can exacerbate hypertension. A: A low-calcium diet is not a modifiable risk factor for the development of hypertension. Calcium intake may have some impact on blood pressure regulation, but it is not a primary modifiable risk factor for hypertension. C: A family history of hypertension is a non-modifiable risk factor as genetics play a significant role in the development of hypertension. While having a family history of hypertension increases one's risk, it is not something that can be changed or modified. D: Consumption of a high-protein diet is not a primary modifiable risk factor for hypertension. While diet plays a role in hypertension, high protein intake alone is not a significant risk factor compared to factors such as excessive alcohol consumption, high sodium intake, and obesity

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 80mmHg. When a person takes an overdose of barbiturates that reduce ventilation but not CO2 output, it leads to respiratory depression. This causes retention of CO2 in the body, leading to hypercapnia. With normal lungs and initial arterial pCO2 of 40mmHg, a rise to 80mmHg is expected due to the decreased ventilation. The other choices are incorrect because they do not account for the significant impact of reduced ventilation on CO2 retention in this scenario. Choice A, 70mmHg, is too low of a rise considering the drastic reduction in ventilation. Choices B and C, 50mmHg and 60mmHg, respectively, do not adequately reflect the extent of hypercapnia that occurs with respiratory depression.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: alveoli. The conducting zone of the respiratory system consists of structures that conduct air to and from the gas exchange surfaces. Alveoli are the site of gas exchange, not part of the conducting zone. The nose (A), trachea (B), and bronchi (C) are all part of the conducting zone as they help transport air to the lungs. Alveoli are where oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occurs during respiration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration or expiration due to airway obstruction. It is a critical sign that requires immediate attention as it indicates a potential blockage in the airway, which can lead to respiratory distress or failure. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: - B: Occasional pink-tinged sputum may indicate mild bleeding, but it is not an immediate concern post-extubation. - C: A few basilar lung crackles on the right could indicate fluid in the lungs, but it is not as urgent as airway obstruction. - D: A respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min is within the normal range for an adult and does not necessarily indicate an immediate issue post-extubation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of accessory muscles. This indicates difficulty breathing as the client is struggling to breathe, leading to the recruitment of additional muscles such as neck and chest muscles to aid in respiration. Diaphragmatic breathing (A) is a normal breathing pattern. Pursed-lip breathing (C) is a technique used to improve breathing efficiency. Controlled breathing (D) refers to breathing techniques that help in relaxation but do not necessarily indicate difficulty breathing.