While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?

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Question 1 of 9

While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.

Question 2 of 9

A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information reported by the patient, such as their feelings, emotions, and perceptions. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is an example of subjective data. The other choices (A, B, D) are objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. Temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. It is important for nurses to differentiate between subjective and objective data to provide accurate assessments and care for their patients.

Question 4 of 9

A patient teaching plan should include which of the ff. lifestyle modifications to help control hypertension?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Regular aerobic exercise helps lower blood pressure by improving heart health and circulation. Step 2: Exercise reduces stress and promotes weight loss, factors that contribute to hypertension control. Step 3: Alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure and should be limited or avoided. Step 4: Smoking and using low-tar cigarettes can still raise blood pressure and have other negative health effects. Step 5: Daily multivitamin supplements do not directly impact blood pressure control.

Question 5 of 9

What common problem is related to outcome identification and planning?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Failing to involve the client in the planning process. This is because involving the client in the planning process is crucial for promoting client-centered care and ensuring that the outcomes are realistic and aligned with the client's goals. By engaging the client, the nurse can better understand their preferences and values, leading to more effective planning and goal setting. Choice B is incorrect as collecting data to establish a database is related to assessment, not outcome identification and planning. Choice C is incorrect as stating specific and measurable outcomes based on nursing diagnoses is actually a key component of effective outcome identification and planning. Choice D is incorrect as writing clear nursing orders, although important, is more related to implementation rather than outcome identification and planning.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the ff symptoms is observed in the client with Right Sided Heart Failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to fluid backup in the body causing dependent pitting edema due to fluid accumulation in the lower extremities. Orthopnea and exertional dyspnea are typically seen in left-sided heart failure. Hemoptysis is associated with conditions like pulmonary embolism or lung cancer, not right-sided heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly correlates with the symptoms of right-sided heart failure.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following questions or statements would be an appropriate termination of the health history interview?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to share any additional information they may have forgotten or overlooked, ensuring a thorough health history interview. Choice A is incorrect as it implies the interviewer is unprepared or disinterested. Choice C is inappropriate as it may make the patient feel guilty or inadequate. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the possibility of gathering more relevant information from the patient.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessment data should be collected continuously to ensure timely detection of any changes in the client's condition. This allows for prompt interventions and prevents complications. Choice B is incorrect as assessment should be ongoing and not limited to specific times. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of assessment should be based on client needs, not a fixed schedule. Choice D is incorrect as assessments should not be limited to certain times but should be ongoing to provide comprehensive care.

Question 9 of 9

Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Abnormal involuntary movements are a hallmark feature, while cognitive decline and emotional disturbances are also commonly observed. Therefore, all three manifestations are typically present in individuals with Huntington's disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these symptoms alone does not encompass the full spectrum of clinical manifestations seen in Huntington's disease.

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