ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
While neuromuscular blocking agents are used in the management of some ventilated patients what is their primary mode of action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This is essential in ventilated patients to facilitate mechanical ventilation and prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony. Rationale: A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief. They do not have any direct analgesic properties. B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures. They do not have anticonvulsant effects. D: Sedation - While sedatives may be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blocking agents, the primary mode of action of these agents is muscle paralysis, not sedation.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse has been working as a staff nurse in the surgical inabteirbn.scoivme/t ecsat re unit for 2 years and is interested in certification. Which credential would be most applicable for her to seek?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CCRN. The nurse works in a surgical unit, making CCRN (Critical Care Registered Nurse) the most applicable credential as it focuses on critical care nursing, which is relevant to the nurse's current practice. ACNPC (Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Certification) and PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nurse) are not suitable as they are more focused on advanced practice or progressive care respectively, not directly related to surgical units. CCNS (Clinical Nurse Specialist Certification) is not the best choice as it is more geared towards advanced practice roles in specific clinical specialties, not general staff nursing.
Question 3 of 9
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventaiblairbto.croym /atessst istance that produces which of the following conditions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilation where pressure is maintained in the lungs at the end of expiration. This helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves oxygenation. Option A is incorrect because PEEP does not deliver a full preset tidal volume with each breath initiation. Option B is incorrect because tidal volume in PEEP is not solely determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. Option C is incorrect because in PEEP, breaths are delivered irrespective of the patient's respiratory drive.
Question 4 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because slow continuous ultrafiltration removes excess plasma water in cases of volume overload by applying a pressure gradient across a semipermeable membrane. This process helps to achieve fluid balance without removing solutes. Choice B is incorrect because convection is not the primary mechanism of slow continuous ultrafiltration. Choice C is incorrect as dialysate is not added in slow continuous ultrafiltration. Choice D is incorrect as slow continuous ultrafiltration does not combine all three processes of ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.
Question 5 of 9
Which action is best for the nurse to take to ensure culturally competent care for an alert, terminally ill Filipino patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it promotes patient-centered care by involving the patient and family in decision-making, respecting their autonomy and preferences. This approach acknowledges the importance of cultural beliefs and values in end-of-life care. Choice B undermines patient autonomy by bypassing direct communication with the patient. Choice C assumes all Filipino individuals have the same cultural needs, which is not accurate. Choice D generalizes preferences without considering individual patient needs and wishes. Overall, choice A is the most appropriate as it aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and cultural competence.
Question 6 of 9
Which treatment can be used to dissolve a thrombus that is lodged in the pulmonary artery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombolytics. Thrombolytics are medications that can dissolve blood clots, making them effective in treating a thrombus lodged in the pulmonary artery. They work by activating the body's natural clot-dissolving system. Aspirin (A) is an antiplatelet drug and may prevent further clot formation but cannot dissolve an existing thrombus. Embolectomy (B) is a surgical procedure to remove a clot and is invasive, usually reserved for cases where thrombolytics are contraindicated. Heparin (C) is an anticoagulant that prevents clot formation but does not dissolve existing clots like thrombolytics do.
Question 7 of 9
A patient nearing death experiences increased secretions and noisy breathing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer anticholinergic medications as prescribed. Anticholinergic medications can help dry up secretions and improve breathing in a patient nearing death. This intervention targets the underlying cause of increased secretions. Suctioning (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root issue. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning (choice C) can help with comfort but do not directly address the secretions. Restricting oral intake (choice D) may lead to dehydration and discomfort without effectively managing the secretions. Administering anticholinergic medications is the priority as it directly targets the symptom of increased secretions, improving the patient's comfort and quality of life.
Question 8 of 9
When performing an initial pulmonary artery occlusion pr essure (PAOP), what are the best nursing actions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflate the balloon for no more than 8 to 10 seconds while noting the waveform change. This is because inflating the balloon within this time frame allows for accurate measurement of PAOP without causing complications like pulmonary edema. Noting the waveform change helps in determining the accurate pressure reading. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: Inflating the balloon with air and recording the volume necessary is not a recommended practice as it can lead to inaccurate readings and potential harm to the patient. C: Maintaining the balloon inflated for 8 hours following insertion is unnecessary and could lead to complications such as vascular damage or thrombosis. D: Zero referencing and leveling the transducer at the phlebostatic axis are important steps but not directly related to performing an initial PAOP measurement.
Question 9 of 9
A hospice patient is manifesting a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 and a respiratory rate of 28. Which statement, if made by the nurse to the patient’s family member, is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate can be a normal response before body system functions decrease in a hospice patient. This is known as a compensatory mechanism as the body tries to maintain oxygenation. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms may not always continue to increase until death. Choice C is incorrect as it implies a reflex response, which may not be the case. Choice D is incorrect as an improvement in the patient's condition is unlikely in a hospice setting.