ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
While family members are visiting, a patient has a respiratory arrest and is being resuscitated. Which action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it respects the patient's right to privacy while also acknowledging the family's presence. By asking family members if they wish to remain in the room, the nurse allows them to make an informed decision based on their comfort level. This approach fosters open communication and shows respect for the family's emotions. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly removing family members can increase their distress and feelings of powerlessness. Choice C is incorrect as it places the burden of support solely on a staff member, potentially isolating the family from the situation. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes family members should stay without considering their preferences or emotional well-being.
Question 2 of 9
The charge nurse is supervising care for a group of patients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg indicates possible fluid overload or cardiac issue requiring urgent evaluation. This value is high, suggesting increased pressure in the left side of the heart. Additionally, the oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen indicates potential respiratory compromise. This patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent worsening of their condition. Choice A is incorrect as a central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is within normal limits, and the urine output is adequate. Choice B is incorrect as a BP of 110/60 mm Hg is acceptable, and a slightly dampened arterial waveform is not an immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg is within normal range, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen is acceptable.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse notes that the patient’s arterial blood gas levels indicate hypoxemia. The patient is not intubated and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. what is the nurse’s first intervention to relieve hypoxemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide for oxygen administration. The first intervention for hypoxemia is to increase oxygen levels to improve oxygen saturation in the blood. Oxygen administration can be achieved through various devices such as nasal cannula, face mask, or non-rebreather mask. This intervention helps to increase the oxygen supply to the patient's tissues and organs, addressing the underlying cause of hypoxemia. Calling for emergency intubation (choice A) is not the first step unless the patient's condition deteriorates. Obtaining an order for BiPAP (choice B) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the initial intervention for hypoxemia. Suctioning secretions (choice D) may be necessary if airway obstruction is present but is not the first step in addressing hypoxemia.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 48-year-old patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is respo nsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nu rse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The FACES scale. This scale uses facial expressions to assess pain, making it suitable for a patient who is unable to verbalize. The nurse can show the patient a series of faces depicting varying levels of pain and ask them to point to the one that best represents their pain level. This method is non-verbal and easy for patients to understand. The other choices are incorrect: B: The Pain Intensity Scale requires the patient to rate their pain on a numerical scale, which may be difficult for a non-verbal patient. C: The PQRST method is a mnemonic for assessing pain characteristics (provocation, quality, region, severity, timing), but it requires patient communication. D: The Visual Analogue Scale involves marking a point on a line to indicate pain intensity, which is not suitable for a non-verbal patient.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This occurs when there is a rapid decrease in urea concentration in the blood during hemodialysis, causing fluid shifts and cerebral edema leading to symptoms like headache, nausea, and confusion. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) would present with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause muscle weakness or cardiac arrhythmias, but not the described symptoms. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature and shivering, not the neurological symptoms mentioned.
Question 6 of 9
Peritoneal dialysis is different from hemodialysis in that peritoneal dialysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritoneal dialysis utilizes the patient's own semipermeable membrane, the peritoneal membrane, as the filtration surface. This allows for the exchange of waste products and excess fluids without the need for external dialysis equipment. Choice A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used for both acute and chronic kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can help manage drug overdose and electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used in cases of water intoxication to help remove excess fluids.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse wishes to practice using the Synergy Model developed by the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). What nursing behavior best supports use of this model?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Self-directed study of best practice for the patients she cares for. This choice aligns with the Synergy Model by promoting individualized patient care based on best practices. Self-directed study allows the nurse to enhance their knowledge and skills to provide optimal care tailored to each patient's unique needs. Attending mandatory in-service programs (A) may not directly support the individualized care approach. Gathering demographic data (C) is important but not specific to the Synergy Model's focus on patient acuity and nurse competencies. Participating in a research study (D) may contribute to evidence-based practice, but it does not directly relate to the Synergy Model's emphasis on aligning nurse competencies with patient needs.
Question 8 of 9
A family member approaches the nurse caring for their gra vely ill son and states, “We want to donate our son’s organs.” What is the best action by the nu rse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the organ procurement organization (OPO). This is the best action because the OPO is responsible for coordinating organ donation and transplantation. By involving the OPO, the nurse ensures that the donation process is handled appropriately and ethically. Choice A: Arranging a multidisciplinary meeting with physicians may be necessary but should not be the first step in this situation. Choice B: Consulting the hospital’s ethics committee may be helpful, but the immediate priority is to involve the OPO to facilitate organ donation. Choice D: Obtaining family consent to withdraw life support is not the nurse’s role in this situation. The focus should be on organ donation to honor the family's wishes.
Question 9 of 9
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. This answer is correct because propranolol is a beta-blocker, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to rebound hypertension, angina, or even myocardial infarction due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Tapering the drug dose over time allows the body to adjust gradually and reduces the risk of these adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining another antihypertensive prescription is not necessary if the client's blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without tapering can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because simply reporting uncomfortable symptoms without taking appropriate action (tapering the drug dose) is not addressing the potential risks associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.