ATI RN
Mental Health Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
While engaging in a discussion with a group of teens about risk behaviors, one of the teens says, 'That will never happen to me.' The nurse interprets this as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Invincibility fable. This term refers to the belief that one is immune to harm or negative outcomes. The teen's statement reflects this cognitive distortion, common in adolescents. It signifies a sense of invulnerability and underestimation of risks. The other choices are incorrect because B: Formal operations refers to Piaget's cognitive development stage, not relevant here. C: Egocentric thinking is about self-centeredness, not directly related to risk perception. D: Relational aggression involves social manipulation, not present in the teen's statement.
Question 2 of 5
After working with a patient who has a history of violent behavior to identify possible clues that suggest that his behavior is escalating, the nurse and patient develop a plan for prevention. Which strategy would they be least likely to include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turning up the music loud. This strategy would be least likely to be included because it does not directly address the escalation of violent behavior. Counting to 10 and taking slow deep breaths are both commonly used techniques to help manage anger and prevent escalation. Taking a voluntary time out is also effective in creating a safe space to de-escalate. Turning up the music loud may serve as a distraction, but it does not actively address the underlying issues or help the patient stay in control of their emotions.
Question 3 of 5
A group of nursing students is reviewing the various theories related to the etiology of schizophrenia. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which neurotransmitter as being responsible for hallucinations and delusions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A (Dopamine) is the correct answer: 1. Dopamine hypothesis: Excess dopamine activity is linked to schizophrenia symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. 2. Studies show antipsychotic drugs targeting dopamine receptors effectively alleviate these symptoms. 3. Dopamine dysregulation theory: Suggests abnormalities in dopamine transmission contribute to schizophrenia. 4. Serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA are not directly implicated in hallucinations and delusions in schizophrenia.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. The nurse assesses the client's level of anxiety and reactions to stressful situations, obtaining this information for which reason?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To act as a predictor of the client's risk for a suicide attempt. Assessing the client's level of anxiety and reactions to stressful situations is crucial in determining the likelihood of a suicide attempt, as individuals with schizoaffective disorder are at a higher risk for suicide. By understanding the client's anxiety levels and responses to stress, the nurse can intervene early to prevent potential harm. Choice A is incorrect because assessing anxiety levels is more focused on immediate risk factors rather than long-term outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because mental competency is typically assessed through other means. Choice D is incorrect as social skills evaluation is not the primary purpose of assessing anxiety levels in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder and is prescribed medication therapy. Which agent would the nurse expect to administer to the client to obtain the quickest relief from anxiety symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that works quickly to alleviate anxiety symptoms due to its rapid onset of action. It enhances the effects of GABA, a neurotransmitter that reduces brain activity, providing immediate relief. Buspirone (A) may take weeks to reach full effect. Venlafaxine (B) is an SNRI that also takes time to show efficacy. Imipramine (D) is a tricyclic antidepressant with delayed onset of action and is not typically used as a first-line treatment for anxiety.