ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 7-year-old child who has the following symptoms: chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage. The nurse notes the presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids. These findings are characteristic of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: allergies. The symptoms described such as chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage are classic signs of allergies. The presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids are typical physical exam findings in children with allergic rhinitis. These signs are known as Dennie-Morgan lines, allergic shiners, and allergic crease respectively. Allergies are the most likely cause based on the symptoms and physical exam findings. Sinus infection (choice B) typically presents with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain. Nasal congestion (choice C) usually involves nasal stuffiness and may not present with the specific eye findings mentioned. An upper respiratory infection (choice D) may present with fever, cough, and nasal discharge, but the eye findings described are not characteristic of an upper respiratory infection.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following best describes the test to assess the function of cranial nerve (CN) X?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, controls the movement of the soft palate and uvula. Asking the patient to say "ahhh" assesses the function of CN X as the soft palate and uvula should elevate symmetrically. A: Observing the patient's ability to articulate specific words does not specifically test CN X function. B: Assessing movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex primarily tests CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). C: Having the patient stick out the tongue and observing for tremors or pulling to one side primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal nerve).
Question 4 of 9
A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.
Question 5 of 9
A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.
Question 6 of 9
A 40-year-old patient who has just finished chemotherapy for breast cancer tells the nurse that she is concerned about her mouth. During assessment, the nurse finds the following: areas of buccal mucosa that are raw and red with some bleeding, as well as other areas that have a white, cheesy coating. The nurse recognizes that this abnormality is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: candidiasis. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans, commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals like cancer patients post-chemotherapy. The raw, red, and bleeding areas indicate mucosal irritation, while the white, cheesy coating represents fungal overgrowth. Carcinoma (choice A) refers to cancerous growths, which typically present differently. Leukoplakia (choice C) is a precancerous lesion characterized by white patches, not raw areas with bleeding. Koplik's spots (choice D) are small, white spots seen in the mouth in measles, not indicative of the described findings.
Question 7 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.
Question 8 of 9
When the retina is examined, which of the following is considered a normal finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An optic disc that is a yellow-orange colour. This is a normal finding because the optic disc typically appears yellow-orange due to the presence of nerve fibers. The yellow-orange color is due to the absence of blood vessels in this area. This is a normal anatomical characteristic of the optic disc. Option B is incorrect because blurred optic disc margins can indicate pathology such as papilledema. Option C is incorrect because the presence of pigmented crescents in the macular area can indicate a condition like myopic degeneration, not a normal finding. Option D is incorrect because the macula is normally located temporally, not nasally, to the optic disc.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse,"What does the middle ear do?" The nurse says that the function of the middle ear is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The middle ear conducts sound vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear via the ossicles. 2. This transmission is essential for the inner ear to convert the vibrations into electrical signals for the brain to interpret as sound. 3. Maintaining balance (A) is the function of the inner ear's vestibular system. 4. Interpreting sounds (B) is done by the brain, not the middle ear. 5. Increasing amplitude (D) would distort sound perception, not enable inner ear function.