ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs NCLEX Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
While completing the history portion of an admission assessment of a client with schizophrenia, the nurse notices that the client is continually moving in the chair and frequently stands, then sits back down. The nurse knows that this client most likely is experiencing the side effect of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Akathisia. Akathisia is characterized by restlessness, inability to sit still, and a constant need to move. In this scenario, the client's continual movement and inability to sit still indicate symptoms of akathisia. This side effect is commonly seen with antipsychotic medications. Explanation: 1. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice A) presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, stiffness, and shuffling gait. The client's symptoms do not align with these characteristics. 2. Dystonia (Choice B) is characterized by involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal movements or postures. The client's symptoms do not match the sudden, sustained muscle contractions seen in dystonia. 3. Akinesia (Choice D) refers to a lack of movement or difficulty initiating movement, which is not consistent with the client's behavior of constant movement and inability to sit still.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been taking temazepam (Restoril) for intermittent insomnia. She calls the nurse to say that when she takes it, she sleeps well, but the next day she feels 'so tired.' Which explanation by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “These drugs affect the sleep cycle, resulting in daytime sleepiness.” Temazepam is a benzodiazepine used for insomnia by enhancing the effects of GABA neurotransmitter, which can disrupt the sleep cycle. This disruption can lead to next-day drowsiness. Choice A is incorrect as long-term use does not increase sedative effects. Choice B is incorrect as taking the drug regularly may not reduce the hangover effect. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines like temazepam actually have a sedative effect and do not increase CNS activity.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately. This instruction is crucial because persistent chest pain could indicate a more serious cardiac event requiring immediate medical attention. It is important to emphasize the urgency of seeking medical help if the first dose does not provide relief. Choice A is incorrect because taking up to five doses at short intervals is not recommended and could lead to hypotension. Choice B is incorrect because chewing the tablet would bypass the sublingual route of administration, reducing the effectiveness of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because waiting 1 minute between doses is not recommended as the patient should seek emergency medical attention if the first dose does not provide relief.
Question 4 of 5
A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic “to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally.” The nurse reviews his medication history and notes that which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: warfarin (Coumadin). Garlic can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin due to its anticoagulant properties. Garlic can enhance the effects of warfarin, leading to potentially dangerous bleeding episodes. Acetaminophen (A), digoxin (C), and phenytoin (D) do not have documented interactions with garlic that would pose a significant risk compared to warfarin. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer based on the potential for a clinically significant drug interaction.
Question 5 of 5
An oral iron supplement is prescribed for a patient. The nurse would question this order if the patient’s medical history includes which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemolytic anemia. Oral iron supplements can exacerbate hemolytic anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells, which can worsen the condition. Other choices (A, C, D) are not contraindications for prescribing an oral iron supplement. Decreased hemoglobin indicates a need for iron supplementation, weakness can be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia (which would require iron supplementation), and concurrent therapy with erythropoietics can be used in combination with iron supplements to treat anemia.