ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
While bathing the client, the nurse observes the client grimacing. The nurse asks if the client is experiencing pain. The client nods yes and refuses to continue the bath. The nurse removes the wash basin, makes the client comfortable, and documents the event in the client’s chart. Which of the following actions clearly demonstrates assessing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking the client if they are experiencing pain is a direct action of assessment. This step involves gathering information directly from the client to understand their condition and needs. By asking the client about pain, the nurse is actively assessing the client's well-being. A: The nurse bathing the client is not an action of assessment but rather a task related to providing care. B: The nurse documenting the incident is important for recording the event but does not directly involve assessing the client's condition. D: The nurse removing the wash basin is a task related to the physical care process and does not involve direct assessment of the client's well-being.
Question 2 of 9
An African client has been diagnosed with Osteomyelitis. The nurse expects to assess which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: positive wound cultures. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone that is typically diagnosed through wound cultures. This assessment helps to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate treatment. Choices A and D are not typical findings in osteomyelitis. Choice A describes symptoms of poor circulation which are not specific to osteomyelitis. Choice B, decreased white blood cell count, is typically not seen in the presence of an infection like osteomyelitis.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse has given medication instruction to the client receiving phenyton (Dilantin). The nurse determines that the client has an adequate understanding if the client states that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." This is because phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices, such as regular brushing and flossing, can help prevent or minimize this side effect. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is contraindicated while taking phenytoin as it can increase the risk of side effects and decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choice C is incorrect because medication doses should never be self-adjusted without consulting a healthcare provider, as this can lead to ineffective treatment or potential harm. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of the morning dose in relation to drawing a serum drug level is not relevant to the client's understanding of medication instructions and does not address the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia associated with phenytoin.
Question 4 of 9
Management of the foregoing patient should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a regular diet with extra fruits and green vegetables can provide essential nutrients for overall health, potassium-sparing diuretics can help manage potassium levels in the body, and discontinuing oral magnesium salts can prevent further complications in the patient. Option A focuses on promoting a healthy diet, B addresses specific medication for potassium management, and C avoids potential interactions with magnesium salts. Therefore, all of the measures (A, B, and C) are necessary for comprehensive management of the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse, in assessing the adequacy of a client's fluid replacement during the first 2 to 3 days following full- thickness burns to the trunk and right thigh, would be aware that the most significant data would be obtained from recording
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary output every hour. This is because assessing urinary output is crucial for monitoring fluid balance in burn patients. Adequate urine output indicates proper fluid replacement, while decreased output may indicate dehydration. Recording weights daily (choice A) may be important but not as immediate and specific as urinary output. Blood pressure every 15 minutes (choice B) is too frequent and not directly related to fluid replacement in this context. Monitoring peripheral edema every 4 hours (choice D) is not as reliable as urinary output for assessing fluid status.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff points should a nurse include in the teaching plan for clients who have potential for hypovolemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid alcohol and caffeine. Alcohol and caffeine are diuretics that can increase urine output, leading to fluid loss and potential hypovolemia. This step is crucial in preventing further dehydration. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Increasing milk and dairy products can contribute to fluid intake but does not address the prevention of hypovolemia. C: While dried peas and beans can provide nutrients, they do not specifically address fluid intake or prevention of hypovolemia. D: Avoiding table salt or sodium-containing foods may help in reducing fluid retention but does not directly address fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia.
Question 7 of 9
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.
Question 8 of 9
When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. This is crucial as it can indicate various underlying health issues affecting Mr. Reyes. Assessing for this helps in detecting potential neurological, metabolic, or cardiac issues. A: Decreased carotid pulses - While important, it is not as critical as altered level of consciousness in this scenario. C: Bleeding from oral cavity - This is important to address but does not take priority over assessing Mr. Reyes' level of consciousness. D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is more specific to neurological assessments and may not be as urgent as assessing his level of consciousness.
Question 9 of 9
A client receiving chemotherapy has a nursing diagnosis of Deficient diversional activity related to decreased energy. Which statement indicates an accurate understanding of appropriate ways to deal with this deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because playing card games with friends is a low-energy activity suitable for someone with decreased energy due to chemotherapy. This option promotes social interaction and mental stimulation, addressing the deficient diversional activity. B, bowling with a team, involves physical activity and may be too strenuous for someone with decreased energy. C, taking a long trip, requires significant energy and may not be feasible. D, eating lunch in a restaurant, does not address the need for diversional activity and is not specific to the client's energy limitations.