While bathing the client, the nurse observes the client grimacing. The nurse asks if the client is experiencing pain. The client nods yes and refuses to continue the bath. The nurse removes the wash basin, makes the client comfortable, and documents the event in the client’s chart. Which of the following actions clearly demonstrates assessing?

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Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

While bathing the client, the nurse observes the client grimacing. The nurse asks if the client is experiencing pain. The client nods yes and refuses to continue the bath. The nurse removes the wash basin, makes the client comfortable, and documents the event in the client’s chart. Which of the following actions clearly demonstrates assessing?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking the client if they are experiencing pain is a direct action of assessment. This step involves gathering information directly from the client to understand their condition and needs. By asking the client about pain, the nurse is actively assessing the client's well-being. A: The nurse bathing the client is not an action of assessment but rather a task related to providing care. B: The nurse documenting the incident is important for recording the event but does not directly involve assessing the client's condition. D: The nurse removing the wash basin is a task related to the physical care process and does not involve direct assessment of the client's well-being.

Question 2 of 9

Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yearly after age 40. This recommendation aligns with the American Cancer Society guidelines that suggest women should start getting annual mammograms at age 40. This age is important as it is when the risk of breast cancer increases. Yearly screenings help in early detection and better treatment outcomes. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they do not follow the ACS guidelines. Option B is incorrect as it does not specify an age for starting mammograms. Option C is incorrect as it suggests starting after the first menstrual period, which might be too early. Option D is incorrect as it recommends screenings every 3 years between ages 20 and 40, which is not in line with the ACS recommendation for yearly screenings after age 40.

Question 4 of 9

Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to see in a plan of care for a client in sickle cell crisis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pain related to sickle cell crisis. In a sickle cell crisis, the client experiences severe pain due to the sickling of red blood cells, which causes blockages in blood vessels. This pain is the hallmark symptom of sickle cell crisis and is a priority nursing diagnosis. The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary issue of sickle cell crisis. Imbalanced nutrition is not typically a priority during a crisis, disturbed sleep pattern is not a common symptom, and impaired skin integrity is not a prominent concern in sickle cell crisis.

Question 5 of 9

A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. In the late stage of AIDS, the client is at risk for neurological complications, including AIDS-related dementia due to decreased blood flow to the brain. This nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority as it directly addresses the client's impaired brain perfusion, which can lead to serious cognitive and functional deficits. Prioritizing this diagnosis ensures timely interventions to optimize cerebral blood flow and prevent further deterioration. Summary: A: Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene - important but not the highest priority compared to addressing neurological complications. B: Dysfunctional grieving - while emotional support is essential, it is not the priority when dealing with a life-threatening physiological issue. D: Risk for injury - while important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of the dementia in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the ff should the nurse identify as the earliest symptom of heart failure in many older clients?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.

Question 7 of 9

The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the ff. nursing diagnoses is the focus of care for a patient with hypertension?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deficient knowledge. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because educating the patient about hypertension, its management, lifestyle modifications, and medication adherence is crucial in improving outcomes. Activity intolerance (A) and impaired physical mobility (B) are not typically primary focuses for hypertension but may be secondary concerns. Ineffective airway clearance (C) is unrelated to hypertension. Therefore, D is the most relevant option for addressing the patient's needs.

Question 9 of 9

Hemodynamic monitoring by means of a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about preload, afterload, and cardiac output. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, afterload is the resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood, and cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This catheter allows for direct measurement of these parameters by monitoring pressures in the pulmonary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they do not encompass the full range of information that can be obtained with a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter.

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