ATI RN
Free Medical Surgical Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
While assessing a patient in the PACU, the nurse finds that the patient's blood pressure is below the preoperative baseline. The nurse determines that the patient has residual vasodilating effects of anesthesia when what is assessed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, option C is the correct answer because a normal pulse rate accompanied by warm, dry, pink skin signifies that the patient is experiencing vasodilation, a common effect of anesthesia. Anesthesia-induced vasodilation results in peripheral vasodilation, leading to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and subsequently a drop in blood pressure. Therefore, these assessment findings indicate that the patient is likely experiencing the residual vasodilating effects of anesthesia. Option A is incorrect because a urinary output >30 mL/hr is not directly related to the vasodilating effects of anesthesia. While monitoring urinary output is essential for assessing renal function and fluid status, it does not specifically indicate the vasodilatory effects of anesthesia. Option B is incorrect as oxygen saturation of 88% is indicative of hypoxemia, not the vasodilating effects of anesthesia. Low oxygen saturation levels suggest inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues and are not specific to the effects of anesthesia on blood pressure. Option D is also incorrect because a narrowing pulse pressure with a normal pulse rate does not specifically indicate vasodilation due to anesthesia. A narrowing pulse pressure may suggest conditions like cardiac tamponade or aortic dissection, but it is not a direct indicator of anesthesia-related vasodilation. Educationally, understanding the assessment findings associated with anesthesia effects is crucial for nurses working in post-anesthesia care units to promptly identify and manage potential complications. By recognizing the signs of vasodilation, nurses can intervene appropriately to stabilize the patient's blood pressure and prevent further complications.
Question 2 of 5
Proper body alignment of the hemiplegic patient with the use of a footboard, trochanter rolls, and pillows will minimize the development of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proper body alignment of a hemiplegic patient is crucial to prevent complications. In this scenario, utilizing a footboard, trochanter rolls, and pillows helps maintain correct positioning. The correct answer is A) plantar extension. By supporting the foot in a neutral position with a footboard, plantar extension (foot dropping down) is prevented, reducing the risk of foot contractures. Option B) shoulder abduction is incorrect because the question pertains to lower body alignment, not upper body positioning. Option C) internal hip rotation is incorrect as the provided aids focus on maintaining external rotation to prevent hip contractures. Option D) external hip rotation is incorrect since the aids assist in preventing internal rotation which is more common in hemiplegic patients. Educationally, understanding proper body alignment techniques is essential for caregivers to prevent complications like contractures and pressure ulcers in immobile patients. By learning how to use supportive devices effectively, healthcare providers can enhance patient comfort and quality of care.
Question 3 of 5
Mrs. Brown asks about the difference between wide- and narrow-angle glaucoma. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate response to Mrs. Brown's query about the difference between wide- and narrow-angle glaucoma is option B) "Wide-angle glaucoma is usually asymptomatic." This answer is correct because wide-angle glaucoma typically does not present with obvious symptoms in its early stages, making it challenging to detect without regular eye exams. Option A is incorrect because wide-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure, which can lead to optic nerve damage if left untreated. Option C is incorrect as complications from wide-angle glaucoma, such as vision loss and blindness, are often more severe compared to narrow-angle glaucoma. Option D is also incorrect because narrow-angle glaucoma can present with symptoms like sudden eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights due to a rapid increase in intraocular pressure. Educationally, understanding the differences between wide-angle and narrow-angle glaucoma is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and manage these conditions. Teaching healthcare professionals to recognize the subtle variations in symptoms and risk factors associated with different types of glaucoma can lead to earlier intervention and better outcomes for patients. Regular training and updates on the latest guidelines for glaucoma management are essential for healthcare professionals to provide optimal care for patients with these conditions.
Question 4 of 5
Mrs. Smith splashed some toilet bowl cleaner into her eye, and now her eye is burning. Mrs. Smith's eye should be irrigated with
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C) her head turned toward the affected eye. When a chemical splashes into the eye, immediate irrigation is crucial to prevent further damage. By turning the head towards the affected eye, gravity helps to ensure that the chemical is flushed out, reducing the chances of it flowing into the unaffected eye. Option A) an acid solution and B) a basic solution are incorrect because adding another chemical could potentially worsen the situation by causing a chemical reaction. It is essential to only use water or saline solution for irrigation in such cases to dilute and remove the chemical. Educationally, understanding proper first aid measures for chemical exposure to the eye is vital in a medical-surgical setting. Prompt and correct actions can prevent serious eye injuries and complications. Teaching healthcare professionals and individuals the correct steps to take in such emergencies can save vision and prevent long-term damage.
Question 5 of 5
Mr. Woodring has had a stapedectomy. On his first postoperative day, he tells the nurse he is dizzy and has ringing in his ears. Your assessment would be that these symptoms are
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) normal. After a stapedectomy, it is common for patients to experience dizziness and ringing in the ears due to changes in inner ear pressure and fluid disturbances. These symptoms are typically transient and part of the normal postoperative course. Option B) indicative of postoperative complications is incorrect because dizziness and ringing in the ears are expected symptoms following a stapedectomy and do not necessarily indicate complications unless they are severe or persistent. Option C) probably related to rapid head movement is incorrect as the symptoms described are more likely due to the surgery itself rather than external factors like head movement. Option D) probably related to antibiotic therapy is incorrect as these symptoms are not typically associated with antibiotic use in the context of a stapedectomy. In an educational context, it is important for healthcare professionals to understand the common postoperative symptoms associated with various surgical procedures to provide appropriate patient education and reassurance. Understanding the expected course of recovery helps in differentiating normal postoperative effects from potential complications, leading to better patient care and outcomes.