ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
While administering normal saline to an adult patient experiencing hypovolemia, the medical command physician recommends the administration of warm normal saline, even though it is not a cold environment. Why would a physician (MCP) recommend warmed normal saline be administered to an adult hypovolemia patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To help maintain a normal body temperature during hypovolemia. Rationale: 1. When a patient is experiencing hypovolemia, their body is already under stress, potentially leading to a decrease in body temperature. 2. Administering warm normal saline helps prevent further cooling of the body and aids in maintaining a normal body temperature. 3. Maintaining normal body temperature is crucial for proper physiological functions and overall patient well-being during hypovolemia. Summary of other choices: A: Warm saline's temperature does not affect its affinity for oxygen transport. C: The energy required for warm saline to enter circulation is not significantly different from room temperature saline. D: Warm saline may slightly affect cardiac output due to temperature, but the primary reason for warming saline is to maintain body temperature in hypovolemia.
Question 2 of 5
You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine by blocking opioid receptors. By administering naloxone, it can potentially reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other adverse effects caused by the opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (choice A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, which is not effective for opioids. Atropine (choice B) is used for treating bradycardia and not specific to opioid overdose. Romazicon (choice C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective for opioid overdose.
Question 3 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf
Question 4 of 5
A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, there is a high risk of intra-abdominal injuries requiring surgical intervention. Initiating fluid therapy helps stabilize the patient's hemodynamics. Transfer to the operating room is crucial for exploration and management of any internal injuries. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) may delay definitive management. Infusion of packed red blood cells (choice B) should be done after initial stabilization. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) are not the priority in this acute trauma situation.
Question 5 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Maintaining inline immobilization and establishing a definitive airway is crucial in this scenario to secure the patient's airway given the presence of inspiratory stridor and potential C-spine injury. Performing a tracheostomy (B) or inserting thoracostomy tubes (C) are not indicated as the primary concern is airway management. Applying cervical traction (A) can exacerbate the C-spine injury and is not the priority over securing the airway to ensure oxygenation.