ATI RN
46 Free Patient Care Technician Practice Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
While administering normal saline to an adult patient experiencing hypovolemia, the medical command physician recommends the administration of warm normal saline, even though it is not a cold environment. Why would a physician (MCP) recommend warmed normal saline be administered to an adult hypovolemia patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Hypovolemia leads to decreased blood volume and potential hypothermia. 2. Administering warm normal saline helps prevent further decrease in body temperature. 3. Maintaining normal body temperature is crucial for optimal cellular function and metabolism. 4. Warm saline infusion supports the body's efforts to regulate temperature and prevent complications. Summary: A: Warm saline does not directly affect oxygen transport; oxygen binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells. C: Energy required for saline to enter circulation is not significantly impacted by its temperature. D: Cardiac output is influenced by various factors, but warming saline does not directly increase it.
Question 2 of 5
You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose by competitively binding to opioid receptors. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the adverse effects of meperidine overdose and restore normal respiratory function in the patient. Activated charcoal (A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract but is not effective in reversing the effects of opioids. Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic drug used to treat bradycardia and not effective in reversing opioid overdose. Romazicon (C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective in reversing opioid overdose. In summary, naloxone is the correct intervention for reversing the adverse effects of meperidine hydrochloride overdose due to its opioid antagonist properties, while the other choices are not effective in this specific scenario
Question 3 of 5
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. This patient is exhibiting severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, altered skin characteristics, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to a rapid decline in perfusion and organ function. In this case, the patient's vital signs indicate a critical state where the body is unable to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. Other choices are incorrect because irreversible shock occurs when vital organs have sustained significant damage, reversible shock indicates early recognition and intervention, and compensated shock denotes the body's ability to maintain perfusion despite initial insult.
Question 4 of 5
A 23-year-old man is shot in the lower abdomen. The most appropriate management is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a trauma scenario like a gunshot wound to the lower abdomen, the priority is to transfer the patient to the operating room for surgical exploration and intervention. This is because penetrating abdominal injuries often require urgent surgical exploration to identify and control bleeding, repair organ damage, and prevent complications like peritonitis. Initiating fluid therapy is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage (choice A) is outdated and has been replaced by more advanced imaging techniques. Infusing packed red blood cells (choice B) can be done after stabilizing the patient in the operating room. Inserting a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter (choice C) is not the immediate priority in this critical situation.
Question 5 of 5
A trauma patient presents to your emergency department with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury. Oxygen saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. The most appropriate next step is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain inline immobilization and establish a definitive airway. In a trauma patient with inspiratory stridor and a suspected C-spine injury, maintaining inline immobilization is crucial to prevent worsening of the spinal injury. Establishing a definitive airway is necessary to secure the patient's airway and improve oxygenation. Immediate tracheostomy (choice B) is too invasive and carries risks. Applying cervical traction (choice A) can worsen the C-spine injury. Inserting bilateral thoracostomy tubes (choice C) is not indicated for a patient with stridor and a C-spine injury.