ATI RN
Quizlet Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antilipemic therapy is used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. This type of therapy often places a strain on the liver as it metabolizes and processes the cholesterol-lowering medications. Therefore, patients receiving antilipemic therapy are at an increased risk of developing liver dysfunction. The nurse should monitor the patient closely for signs and symptoms of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and changes in liver function tests. Early detection and intervention can help prevent serious complications associated with liver dysfunction.
Question 2 of 9
Which condition does the nurse identify as a late manifestation of hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Palpitations are a late manifestation of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect the heart's ability to function properly. Palpitations, or irregular heartbeat, can occur as a result of the heart's increased sensitivity to adrenaline due to low potassium levels. Other early manifestations of hypokalemia include muscle weakness, which is a result of potassium's role in muscle contraction, hypotension (low blood pressure), and lethargy.
Question 3 of 9
The patient is being discharged home with furosemide (Lasix). When providing discharge teaching, which instruction will the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to include instructions for monitoring weight as a part of discharge teaching for a patient receiving furosemide (Lasix) because this medication is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of extra water and salt. Monitoring weight can provide important information about fluid status. A weight gain of more than 1 lb in a day or 2-3 lbs in a week should be reported to the healthcare provider as it may indicate fluid retention or worsening heart failure. This can help prevent complications and ensure appropriate management of the patient's condition.
Question 4 of 9
Which organ is the most responsible for the first-pass effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The liver, via portal vein metabolism, drives the first-pass effect, reducing oral drug bioavailability (e.g., morphine) before systemic circulation. Bladder and kidneys excrete, not metabolize first. Stomach degrades some, but liver's enzyme activity dominates. First-pass is liver-centric, shaping dosing.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been changed from a first generation H1 receptor antagonist to a second generation H1 receptor antagonist. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the benefit of this change when which statement is made?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Second-generation antihistamines reduce sedation , a key benefit over first-generation. Alcohol , dry mouth , and urination aren't primary differences. D shows understanding, making it the best statement.
Question 6 of 9
The health care provider orders a hypertonic crystalloid IV solution for a 70-year-old patient. Which solution will the nurse hang?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration than plasma, drawing fluid into the intravascular space. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride (D) is hypertonic. Lactated Ringer's (A) and 0.45% sodium chloride (B) are hypotonic, while 0.9% sodium chloride (C) is isotonic. Hypertonic solutions are used to treat severe hyponatremia or cerebral edema but must be administered cautiously to avoid fluid overload.
Question 7 of 9
Which drug is the antidote of Alprazolam?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for Alprazolam, which is a benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic drug. Flumazenil works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the benzodiazepine receptor site on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. It effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Alprazolam, making it the appropriate antidote in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity. The other options provided (Physostigmine, Protamine sulfate, and Acetylcysteine) are unrelated to Alprazolam and are not indicated as antidotes for this specific drug.
Question 8 of 9
How can central venous access devices (CVADs) be of value in a patient receiving chemotherapy who has stomatitis and severe diarrhea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Central venous access devices (CVADs) can be of value in a patient receiving chemotherapy who has stomatitis and severe diarrhea by allowing concentrated hyperalimentation fluid to be administered through the CVAD. Stomatitis and severe diarrhea can significantly affect oral intake and absorption of nutrients, leading to malnutrition and dehydration. By administering concentrated hyperalimentation fluid through a CVAD, the patient can receive the necessary nutrition and hydration directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract. This can help maintain the patient's nutritional status and manage dehydration effectively during chemotherapy treatment.
Question 9 of 9
Regarding biotransformation, which of the following is true:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethanol competes with methanol metabolism, not enhances it, increasing toxicity, so that's false. Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, reducing cyclosporin metabolism, raising levels, a true statement critical for transplant patients. Phenytoin induces, not inhibits, theophylline metabolism, lowering levels. Rifampicin induces, not inhibits, oral contraceptive metabolism, reducing efficacy. Griseofulvin induces warfarin metabolism, not inhibits. Grapefruit juice's effect is a classic drug-food interaction, necessitating dose adjustments or avoidance.