Which white blood cells are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basophils. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that release histamine during allergic reactions. They contain granules filled with histamine, which is released when they encounter an allergen. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils do not release histamine during allergic reactions. Monocytes are involved in immune response and inflammation, eosinophils are responsible for combating parasitic infections, and neutrophils are primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neck vein distention. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia, causing fluid overload. This can manifest as neck vein distention due to increased venous pressure. Tetanic contractions (A) and weight loss (B) are not typical complications of SIADH; tetany is more associated with hypocalcemia and weight loss is not a common manifestation. Polyuria (D) is actually the opposite of what is seen in SIADH, which is characterized by water retention and concentrated urine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the patient rate her fatigue on a scale allows for a subjective assessment directly from the patient, providing valuable insight into the severity and impact of fatigue on her daily life. This approach considers the patient's perspective, which is crucial in understanding her experience and tailoring interventions. Choice A (observing activity level) may not accurately capture the subjective experience of fatigue. Choice C (monitoring vital signs) does not directly assess fatigue but rather general health status. Choice D (monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit values) can indicate anemia but may not fully capture the patient's fatigue experience.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: IV morphine is the correct choice as it is a potent analgesic and has a rapid onset of action to reduce shortness of breath (SOB) in a crisis situation. Step 2: Oral cortisone (A) is not suitable for quick relief of SOB as it has a slower onset of action. Step 3: IM meperidine (C) is an opioid analgesic but not commonly used for managing SOB in end-stage respiratory disease. Step 4: IV propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and not indicated for immediate relief of SOB in a crisis situation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct order of priority for nursing actions for a new laryngectomee is: ii.Set up a visit from a well-adjusted laryngectomee, iii.Maintain a patent airway, iv.Control postoperative pain, i.Assist with ambulation. Setting up a visit from a well-adjusted laryngectomee comes first to provide emotional support and guidance. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for breathing. Controlling postoperative pain is important for comfort. Assisting with ambulation is necessary but can be done after ensuring the other priorities are addressed. Other choices are incorrect because they do not prioritize emotional support, airway maintenance, and pain control before assisting with ambulation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because crying whenever diabetes is mentioned indicates emotional distress, a key component of ineffective coping. This response suggests the client is overwhelmed by the diagnosis, affecting their ability to cope effectively. In contrast, choices A, B, and C focus more on physical aspects and management of diabetes, not coping mechanisms. Weight gain could be related to poor diet or medication side effects, skipping insulin doses might indicate non-adherence, and failure to monitor blood glucose could be due to lack of knowledge or resources. Overall, D is the best choice as it directly relates to the client's emotional response to the diagnosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. This statement indicates a need for additional instruction because questioning a partner about past sexual encounters may not be a reliable method to avoid STDs. Here's the rationale: 1. A: Correct - Acknowledges the reality that engaging in sexual activity carries risks, even with precautions. 2. B: Correct - Emphasizes that abstinence is the most effective way to prevent STD transmission. 3. C: Correct - Using a condom with spermicide can reduce the risk of STD transmission, although it's not foolproof. 4. D: Incorrect - Relying solely on partner questioning is not a comprehensive or foolproof method to prevent STDs. It overlooks the potential for misinformation or lack of disclosure from the partner.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoventilation. In chronic respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot effectively eliminate carbon dioxide, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood, causing acidosis. Hypoventilation results in decreased removal of CO2, exacerbating the acidosis. A: Hyperventilation would lead to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. B: Loss of acid by kidneys would result in metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis. D: Loss of base by kidneys would lead to metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis. In summary, the main issue in chronic respiratory acidosis is inadequate elimination of CO2 due to hypoventilation, leading to acidosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing frequent mouth care to Mr. Franco is important to remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting oral hygiene. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for mouth care in this case is to address the physical consequences of a seizure, such as tongue biting and potential injury, rather than thirst, tactile stimulation, or prevention of oral mucosal issues related to mouth breathing in a comatose patient.