ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which types of nurses make the best communicatorswith patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport. A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator. C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator. D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.
Question 2 of 9
During a recent visit to the clinic a woman presents with erythema of the nipple and areola on the right breast. She states this started several weeks ago and she was fearful of what would be found. The nurse should promptly refer the patient to her primary care provider because the patients signs and symptoms are suggestive of what health problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Erythema of nipple/areola in one breast can be a sign of Paget's disease, a rare form of breast cancer. 2. Paget's disease may also present with itching, tingling, or a burning sensation in the affected area. 3. Referring the patient promptly is crucial for early detection and appropriate management. 4. Peau d'orange (A) is a sign of advanced breast cancer, not typically presenting with erythema alone. 5. Nipple inversion (B) may be benign or related to other conditions, not typically presenting with erythema. 6. Acute mastitis (D) presents with breast pain, warmth, swelling, and fever, but not typically with isolated erythema of the nipple/areola.
Question 3 of 9
The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer. Rationale: 1. Regular exercise helps maintain a healthy weight, which is important in reducing the risk of breast cancer. 2. Physical activity can help regulate hormone levels, such as estrogen, which can affect breast cancer risk. 3. Exercise boosts the immune system and reduces inflammation, both of which play a role in cancer prevention. Summary: A: Eating a healthy diet is important, but it alone cannot provide all the protection needed against breast cancer. B: Tamoxifen may be recommended in some cases, but it is not the primary preventive measure for everyone. D: While genetic predisposition increases risk, lifestyle choices like exercise can still play a significant role in reducing the risk of breast cancer.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is using the explanatory model to determinethe etiology of an illness. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: What do you call your problem? In the explanatory model, this question helps the nurse understand the patient's perspective and cultural beliefs about their illness. By asking how the patient labels their illness, the nurse gains insight into the patient's understanding of the illness, which can influence their treatment adherence and outcomes. The other options are incorrect because: A: How should your sickness be treated? - This question focuses on treatment preferences rather than understanding the patient's beliefs. C: How does this illness work inside your body? - This question is more aligned with the biomedical model, seeking physiological explanations rather than patient perspectives. D: What do you fear most about your sickness? - While important for assessing emotional aspects, this question does not directly address the patient's explanatory model.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinsons disease and the nurse is planning the patients subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address when educating the patients family?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for injury. Patients with Parkinson's disease are at risk for falls due to symptoms like tremors and impaired balance. Educating the family about fall prevention measures is crucial. Choice A, Risk for infection, is not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Choice B, Impaired spontaneous ventilation, is not a common concern in Parkinson's disease. Choice C, Unilateral neglect, is more commonly seen in conditions like stroke, not Parkinson's disease. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient with Parkinson's disease is addressing the risk for injury to prevent falls.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy. The patient has phoned the surgical unit and states that she is experiencing occasional sharp, shooting pains in her affected ear. How should the nurse best interpret this patients complaint?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy is still within the early phase of recovery, where occasional sharp, shooting pains in the affected ear can be expected due to the healing process. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Timing: It is only day 6 post-surgery, so it is normal to experience some pain as part of the healing process. 2. Nature of pain: Sharp, shooting pains are common post-surgery due to tissue healing and nerve regeneration. 3. Lack of other symptoms: The patient did not report any other concerning symptoms like fever or discharge, which would be more indicative of an infection. 4. Unlikely complications: Spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane or unsuccessful surgery would typically present with more severe and consistent symptoms. Summary: - B: Unlikely as there are no other signs of infection. - C: Unlikely as the pain is described as occasional and sharp. - D:
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is providing an educational event to a local mens group about prostate cancer. The nurse should cite an increased risk of prostate cancer in what ethnic group?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: African Americans. African American men have the highest incidence rate of prostate cancer among all ethnic groups. This is due to genetic and environmental factors, as well as disparities in access to healthcare. Native Americans (A), Caucasian Americans (B), and Asian Americans (D) have lower rates of prostate cancer compared to African Americans. It is important to educate the local men's group about this increased risk in African Americans to promote awareness and early detection.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. Monitoring blood counts is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. Choice A is incorrect as Tegretol can have serious adverse effects, including bone marrow depression. Choice C is incorrect as the main side effects of carbamazepine are related to the central nervous system, not renal dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as medications like carbamazepine should be started at a low dose and gradually titrated up to minimize side effects.