ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which types of nurses make the best communicatorswith patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport. A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator. C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator. D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it shows that the medication is effectively preventing hyperreflexia, a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Drowsiness (choice A) can indicate toxicity. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour (choice B) is not specific to magnesium sulfate levels. Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (choice D) is indicative of respiratory depression, a sign of magnesium toxicity. Thus, choice C is the best assessment to indicate a therapeutic level of medication in a patient with preeclampsia taking magnesium sulfate.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action isbestfor the nurseto take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): Checking with the pharmacy for availability of liquid forms of medications is the best action because it reduces the risk of clogging the nasogastric tube. Liquid medications are less likely to cause blockages compared to nonliquid medications. Additionally, liquid forms are easier to administer through the tube. By using liquid medications, the nurse can ensure that the medications flow smoothly through the tube without causing any obstructions. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Instilling nonliquid medications without diluting can increase the risk of tube clogging. B: Irrigating the tube with water after all medications are given may not prevent clogging effectively and could introduce unnecessary moisture into the tube. C: Mixing all medications together can lead to potential drug interactions and may not address the issue of tube clogging effectively.
Question 5 of 9
A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for the assessment of redness and discharge from the eye and is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. What is the most important information to discuss with the parents and child?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of viral conjunctivitis, which is highly contagious. Step 2: Children often touch their eyes and then surfaces, aiding in disease transmission. Step 3: Educating parents and the child on proper hand hygiene can help contain the infection. Step 4: Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, so compliance is not necessary. Step 5: Complications like meningitis and septicemia are extremely rare with viral conjunctivitis. Step 6: Surgery is not indicated for viral conjunctivitis, as it is a self-limiting condition.
Question 6 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse in an allergy clinic is educating a new patient about the pathology of the patients health problem. What response should the nurse describe as a possible consequence of histamine release?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle. Histamine release can lead to bronchoconstriction, which narrows the airways and causes difficulty in breathing. This is a common symptom in allergic reactions like asthma. Constriction of small venules (Choice A) is not a typical consequence of histamine release. Dilation of large blood vessels (Choice C) is more associated with histamine's role in increasing vascular permeability. Decreased secretions from gastric and mucosal cells (Choice D) is not directly related to histamine's effects on smooth muscle contraction.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain control. This is the main focus because the patient's quality of life should be prioritized, and managing pain is crucial for comfort and well-being in end-of-life care. Pain can significantly impact the patient's physical and emotional state. The other choices are incorrect because managing treatment complications (B) and administering treatments (E) may not be relevant if the tumor is inoperable and the patient has a short life expectancy. Interpretation of diagnostic tests (C) may not be necessary at this stage, and assistance with self-care (D) may not be the main priority compared to pain control.
Question 9 of 9
The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain on manipulation of the auricle is characteristic of otitis externa. This is because otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the outer ear canal, causing pain and tenderness when the ear is touched or manipulated. A: Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe is characteristic of gout, not otitis externa. B: Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal is common and not specific to otitis externa. D: Air bubbles visible in the middle ear are associated with otitis media, not otitis externa. In summary, pain on manipulation of the auricle is a key assessment finding in otitis externa, distinguishing it from other ear conditions.