ATI RN
free microbiology test bank questions pdf Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which type of RNA carries the genetic code for protein synthesis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: mRNA. mRNA carries the genetic code from the DNA in the cell nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis occurs. It serves as a template for protein synthesis by specifying the order of amino acids. tRNA (choice B) brings amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. rRNA (choice C) is a structural component of ribosomes. snRNA (choice D) is involved in RNA processing and splicing, not protein synthesis. Therefore, choice A is correct as it directly carries the genetic code for protein synthesis.
Question 2 of 9
Which structure is used by bacteria for movement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flagella. Flagella are whip-like appendages used by bacteria for movement. They rotate in a corkscrew motion to propel the bacteria through their environment. Pili (choice A) are hair-like structures used for attachment, not movement. Capsules (choice C) are protective layers around bacteria, not involved in movement. Fimbriae (choice D) are also used for attachment and biofilm formation, not for movement. Therefore, the correct choice is B as flagella are specifically adapted for bacterial motility.
Question 3 of 9
Which form of human plague is present with high fever and large lymphadenopathies (buboes). The case fatality in untreated cases may reach 60%.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bubonic plague. Bubonic plague is characterized by high fever and large swollen lymph nodes (buboes). The case fatality rate in untreated cases can reach 60%. This form of plague is typically transmitted through the bite of an infected flea. B: Pneumonic plague presents with respiratory symptoms and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. C: Gastrointestinal plague is not a recognized form of plague. D: Septicemic plague is a severe form of plague where the bacteria multiply in the bloodstream. It may not always present with buboes.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following have a fecal oral route of transmission?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid fever. Typhoid fever is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, meaning the bacteria from an infected person's feces can contaminate food or water and then be ingested by another person. This can lead to infection and illness. The other choices, diphtheria (A), syphilis (C), and spotted fever (D) are not transmitted through the fecal-oral route. Diphtheria is spread through respiratory droplets, syphilis is primarily sexually transmitted, and spotted fever is transmitted through tick bites. Thus, only Typhoid fever aligns with the fecal-oral route of transmission.
Question 5 of 9
Urine examination of a patient with acute cystitis revealed leukocytes and a lot of gram-negative bacilli. Inoculation resulted in growth of colonies of mucous nature that formed green soluble pigment. What microorganism is the most probable cause of the disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Presence of gram-negative bacilli suggests Enterobacteriaceae family, which includes E. coli. 2. Green soluble pigment indicates pyocyanin production, characteristic of E. coli. 3. E. coli is the most common cause of acute cystitis due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. Summary: A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not typically associated with acute cystitis and does not produce mucous colonies. B: Klebsiella pneumoniae may cause UTIs, but does not produce green pigment and is less common than E. coli. D: Salmonella enteritidis is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not cystitis.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following proteins are encoded by herpesviruses and required for viral DNA replication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: viral DNA polymerase. This enzyme is essential for replicating the viral DNA during the herpesvirus life cycle. It catalyzes the synthesis of new DNA strands using the viral genomic template. Ribonucleotide reductase (B) is involved in nucleotide synthesis, but not directly in DNA replication. Neuraminidase (C) is an enzyme found in influenza viruses, not herpesviruses. Thymidine kinase (D) is an enzyme that phosphorylates thymidine, but its role is more related to nucleotide metabolism rather than viral DNA replication.
Question 7 of 9
When examining a patient with a suspicion of food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he had eaten the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is often caused by consuming improperly canned or preserved foods, particularly meats. The spores of the Clostridium botulinum bacteria can grow in anaerobic conditions, such as those found in improperly canned foods, leading to the production of the botulinum toxin. The symptoms of botulism align with those characteristic of the patient's condition. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Custard pastry from private bakery - Unlikely to be the cause of botulism as this type of food is not typically associated with the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C: Sour cream from local dairy factory - While dairy products can sometimes be sources of foodborne illness, botulism is not commonly associated with sour cream. D: Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden - Botulism is not typically transmitted through fresh fruits or vegetables, making this an unlikely source of infection.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria are commonly associated with food poisoning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum and Staphylococcus aureus. Clostridium botulinum produces a potent neurotoxin causing botulism, commonly associated with improperly canned foods. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins causing symptoms of food poisoning. Bacillus anthracis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are not typically associated with food poisoning. Treponema pallidum and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are bacteria causing sexually transmitted infections. Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae are not directly linked to food poisoning.
Question 9 of 9
In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and damage the microvilli:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC). EPEC bacteria adhere to the intestine wall using a protein called intimin, leading to microvilli damage. This attachment disrupts the normal absorption function of the intestine. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC) primarily causes bloody diarrhea and does not specifically target microvilli. C: Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC) produces toxins that lead to watery diarrhea but does not directly target microvilli. D: Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC) invades and replicates within intestinal cells, causing inflammatory diarrhea, but does not specifically damage microvilli.