ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which type of immunity is demonstrated by the transfer of a mother's immunoglobulin across the placenta to protect the child?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The immunoglobulin passed from the mother to the child through the placenta is an example of natural passive immunity, making choice B the correct answer. This transfer gives the child temporary immunity to various diseases without their immune system having to work. On the other hand, natural active immunity (Choice A) occurs when the body produces its own antibodies in response to an antigen. Artificial active immunity (Choice C) is achieved through vaccinations, where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific disease. Artificial passive immunity (Choice D) is a temporary immunity that involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source.
Question 2 of 9
What characterizes Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is characterized by the uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly (Choice A). This is driven by recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts (Choice C), but the distinguishing factor is the compulsive behavior, making choice A the most accurate. While choice B can be seen as true, it lacks the specific detail of the compulsive behavior that makes A a better answer. Choice D is not incorrect, but it uses terminology that is less precise and less commonly used to describe OCD, making it a less accurate choice than A. The provided rationale is not relevant to the question.
Question 3 of 9
When is infertility said to exist?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infertility is defined as not being able to get pregnant despite having frequent, unprotected sex for at least a year for most couples. Therefore, the correct answer is C. A, B, and D are incorrect. While having no uterus (choice A) may result in infertility, it is not the sole determining factor. Similarly, not having children (choice B) does not automatically indicate infertility. Lastly, the time frame of 6 months (choice D) is not sufficient to determine infertility; typically, a year of trying without success is required for such a diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
What effect does the use of a hot compress have, as explained to Ronnie who has been prescribed pain medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It produces an anesthetic effect.' Hot compresses can help alleviate pain by producing an anesthetic effect, which numbs the area. Choice B is incorrect because a hot compress does not directly increase nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing. Choice C is also incorrect because a hot compress primarily aids in pain relief rather than increasing oxygenation to the tissues for enhanced healing. Choice D is incorrect because hot compresses typically lead to vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, which aids in promoting blood flow rather than preventing infection. Safe and effective patient care relies on actions based on established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
Question 5 of 9
Which type of immunity is demonstrated by the transfer of a mother's immunoglobulin across the placenta to protect the child?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The immunoglobulin passed from the mother to the child through the placenta is an example of natural passive immunity, making choice B the correct answer. This transfer gives the child temporary immunity to various diseases without their immune system having to work. On the other hand, natural active immunity (Choice A) occurs when the body produces its own antibodies in response to an antigen. Artificial active immunity (Choice C) is achieved through vaccinations, where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific disease. Artificial passive immunity (Choice D) is a temporary immunity that involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source.
Question 6 of 9
While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
Which food items should be consumed with nonheme iron to increase its absorption, according to a nurse's education plan for clients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kiwi and Strawberries. Both of these fruits are high in vitamin C, a nutrient known to enhance the absorption of nonheme iron. Vitamin C facilitates the conversion of nonheme iron into a form that is more readily absorbed by the body, thereby enhancing iron intake. In contrast, coffee (Choice C) contains certain compounds that can actually inhibit the absorption of iron, making it a less desirable choice when the goal is to increase iron absorption. Consequently, Choices A (Kiwi), B (Strawberries), and C (Coffee) were specifically picked to highlight the varying effects of different food items on nonheme iron absorption.
Question 8 of 9
Where should a nurse auscultate the apex beat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the apex beat is at the fifth intercostal space, along the midclavicular line. This is where the apical impulse, also known as the point of maximal impulse (PMI), can be best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect anatomical locations for auscultating the apex beat, which makes them incorrect choices. Auscultating at the correct location allows healthcare providers to assess the heart's function and detect any abnormalities in heart sounds, which is crucial for comprehensive patient care.
Question 9 of 9
What does a QRS Complex represent in an ECG reading?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The QRS Complex in an ECG reading represents ventricular depolarization, which is the process of the heart's ventricles preparing to contract by changing the electrical charge in the cell, hence choice 'C' is the correct answer. Choice 'A' is incorrect because atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave in an ECG reading, not the QRS Complex. Choice 'B' is incorrect as ventricular repolarization is depicted by the T wave, not the QRS Complex. Finally, choice 'D' is also incorrect because the QRS Complex is not the end of ventricular depolarization, but the process itself.