Which type of HMO contracts with two or more IPAs (Independent Practice Associations)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Network model. In this model, the HMO contracts with multiple IPAs, allowing members to choose from a wider network of physicians. This promotes flexibility and choice. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Staff model involves directly employing physicians, not contracting with IPAs. B: Point of service model allows members to go outside the network for care, not necessarily contracting with IPAs. D: Group model involves physicians working in a group practice, not IPAs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Create tension among nurses. Collective bargaining involves negotiation between labor unions and employers, which can lead to disagreements and conflicts among nurses over issues such as wages, working conditions, and benefits. This tension is a common concern as it can impact unity and collaboration within the nursing workforce. Summary: B: Reform health care - This is incorrect as collective bargaining focuses on labor relations, not healthcare reform. C: Secure economic security - This is incorrect as securing economic security is one of the goals of collective bargaining, not a concern. D: Unite the nurses - This is incorrect as collective bargaining can sometimes lead to division and tension among nurses rather than uniting them.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, C) are examples of environmental factors that can influence decision-making in nursing. Personal preferences can affect how a nurse chooses a treatment plan. Ethical considerations impact decisions regarding patient care. The availability of resources, such as staffing or medical supplies, can constrain decision-making. Therefore, considering all these factors collectively (personal preferences, ethical considerations, and availability of resources) is crucial in making informed nursing decisions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Battery. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent. In this case, performing the surgery without obtaining informed consent from the client constitutes battery. The lack of signed consent implies the client did not agree to the procedure, making it an unauthorized touching. This is a clear violation of the client's rights and can lead to a charge of battery. False imprisonment (A) involves restricting someone's freedom of movement unlawfully, which is not applicable here. Libel (B) refers to written defamation, which is not relevant to the situation. Malpractice (D) involves professional negligence in providing healthcare, not obtaining consent before surgery would fall under battery rather than malpractice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Expertise. Professionalism is often associated with possessing a high level of expertise or specialized knowledge in a particular field. This expertise allows professionals to perform their duties effectively and competently. Early definitions of professionalism emphasized the importance of possessing the necessary skills and knowledge to excel in one's profession. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while empathy, ethical and moral values, and honesty are important characteristics of professionalism, they are not the defining factors. Empathy, ethics, and honesty are crucial components of professional behavior, but without expertise, a professional may not be able to effectively fulfill their responsibilities in their chosen field.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verifying through feedback. This strategy involves ensuring that the message was accurately received and understood by asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions. This helps confirm clarity and reduces the chances of miscommunication or errors. It promotes active listening and engagement, enhancing communication effectiveness. Summary: B: Follow-up communication is about checking in after the initial communication, not verifying understanding in the moment. C: Getting positive attention is unrelated to verifying understanding of directions. D: Knowing the context of the instruction is important but not the same as verifying understanding through feedback.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Tying the problem to clients' care is crucial in coaching to ensure the client sees the relevance and importance of addressing the issue. Step 2: This step helps create motivation and engagement for the client to actively work towards solving the problem. Step 3: By connecting the problem to the client's values and well-being, it enhances the client's commitment to the coaching process. Step 4: This step also promotes a deeper understanding of the impact the problem has on the client's life, driving them towards meaningful change. Step 5: Overall, tying the problem to clients' care is essential for effective coaching by fostering a client-centered approach and facilitating meaningful progress. Summary: A: Stating the target is important but not as overlooked as tying the problem to clients' care. B: Jumping to conclusions is a common mistake to avoid in coaching. C: Asking for suggestions can be beneficial, but it is not the often overlooked step in coaching.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Physical therapy for stroke patients, as it falls under tertiary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of a disease or disability. Physical therapy helps stroke patients regain function and improve quality of life post-onset. A: Administering immunizations is an example of primary prevention, preventing a disease from occurring. C: Routine health screenings are a form of secondary prevention, detecting diseases early to prevent progression. D: Health education campaigns can be both primary (preventing disease occurrence) or secondary prevention (early detection).

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary responsibility of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting is to oversee administrative tasks (Choice C). This includes managing staff, scheduling, budgeting, ensuring regulatory compliance, and improving patient care quality. Providing direct patient care (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of bedside nurses. Managing healthcare facilities (Choice B) is usually handled by facility administrators. Conducting clinical research (Choice D) is more aligned with the role of a nurse researcher or clinical trials coordinator. Thus, the correct answer (Choice C) focuses on the core duties of a nurse manager in managing the operations and administrative aspects of a healthcare setting.