ATI RN
Neurological Review of Systems Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which type of drug would be an antidote to atropine poisoning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: muscarinic agonist. Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors. Therefore, the antidote for atropine poisoning would be a muscarinic agonist, which competes with atropine for binding to muscarinic receptors and reverses its effects. Nicotinic agonist (A) would not be effective as atropine acts on muscarinic receptors, not nicotinic receptors. Anticholinergic (B) is the same class as atropine, so it would not counteract its effects. α-blocker (D) works on a different receptor system and would not be effective in treating atropine poisoning.
Question 2 of 5
While gathering equipment after an injection, a nurse accidentally received a prick from an improperly capped needle. To interpret this sensation, which of these areas must be intact?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex. The lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature sensations to the thalamus, which then relays it to the sensory cortex for interpretation. In this scenario, the nurse's sensation of being pricked by the needle is a pain sensation, so the intactness of the lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex is crucial for interpreting this sensation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the specific pathways responsible for transmitting pain sensations. The corticospinal tract (choice A) is involved in motor function, the pyramidal tract (choice B) is involved in voluntary movement, and the anterior spinothalamic tract (choice D) is not associated with pain and temperature sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly relates to the interpretation of the pain sensation experienced by the nurse.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse practitioner is reviewing the chart of a patient who is scheduled to receive their first dose of sumatriptan (Imitrex) in the clinic today. Past medical history is positive for only migraines. Which of the following requires further evaluation before the medication is administered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Current blood pressure 142/90 mmHg. Before administering sumatriptan, the nurse practitioner should further evaluate the patient's elevated blood pressure to ensure it is not contraindicated for the medication. Sumatriptan can potentially increase blood pressure, so it is crucial to monitor and address any hypertension before giving the medication. Choice A: Recent naproxen use is not a direct contraindication for sumatriptan. Both medications are commonly used together for migraine treatment. Choice C: A resting pulse rate of 61 bpm is within the normal range and does not require further evaluation before administering sumatriptan. Choice D: Adverse reaction to ubrogepant is not relevant for evaluating the safety of sumatriptan. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects and interactions.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse assesses a patient diagnosed with functional neurological (conversion) disorder. Which comment is most likely from this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The correct answer is A because the patient's symptoms (shortness of breath and left arm pains) do not have a clear medical explanation, indicating a functional neurological disorder. 2. The patient attributing symptoms to indigestion suggests a psychological rather than physical origin. 3. Choices B, C, and D describe physical symptoms with potential organic causes, not typically associated with conversion disorder. 4. B is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues, C of sexual dysfunction, and D of possible esophageal pathology, making them less likely in a conversion disorder context.
Question 5 of 5
A patient diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder has been in treatment for 4 weeks. The patient says, Although I'm still having pain, I notice it less and am able to perform more activities. The nurse should evaluate the treatment plan as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: partially successful. This is because the patient is showing improvement in symptoms and functioning, indicating some progress in treatment effectiveness. It is not considered unsuccessful (A) as there is improvement noted. It is not minimally successful (B) as the patient is experiencing noticeable improvement in pain and activity levels. It is also not totally achieved (D) as the patient still has some pain despite improvement in functioning. Overall, option C best reflects the patient's progress at this stage of treatment.