ATI RN
mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which type of bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments due to their ability to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and utilizing fermentation or anaerobic respiration in anaerobic conditions. This flexibility allows them to thrive in diverse environments. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for respiration and cannot survive in anaerobic environments. C: Obligate anaerobes can only survive in the absence of oxygen and would not thrive in aerobic conditions. D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to grow and are not as versatile in adapting to varying oxygen levels compared to facultative anaerobes.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only, until the victim reaches another safety unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal eyewash. Personal eyewash is designed for immediate flushing until the victim reaches a more suitable safety unit. It provides a controlled flow of water to safely flush eyes while transporting the victim. The emergency shower (A) is meant for full-body coverage, not just for the eyes. Handheld drench hose (C) may not provide adequate flushing pressure. Combination unit (D) may not be easily portable for immediate use.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria is known for causing the disease cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a gram-negative bacterium that produces a toxin leading to severe watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis, not cholera. Clostridium perfringens is associated with food poisoning, not cholera. In summary, Vibrio cholerae is the correct answer because it is the specific bacterium known to cause cholera, while the other choices are associated with different diseases.
Question 4 of 9
In 8 days after a surgery the patient develops tetatus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be caused by suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological laboratory. What nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Kitt-Tarozzi medium. This medium is specifically designed for the isolation and cultivation of Clostridium tetani, the bacteria responsible for tetanus. The other options, Sabouraud agar, Endo agar, and Hiss medium, are not suitable for the growth of Clostridium tetani. Sabouraud agar is used for fungal cultures, Endo agar is a selective medium for enteric bacteria, and Hiss medium is used for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria other than Clostridium tetani. Therefore, the Kitt-Tarozzi medium is the most appropriate choice for isolating and identifying the tetanus agent in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with suspected liver abscess was admitted to the surgical department. The patient had been staying for a long time on business in one of African countries and fell repeatedly ill with acute gastrointestinal disorders. What protozoal disease may the patient be now ill with?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is Amebiasis (choice A) because the patient's symptoms of acute gastrointestinal disorders and prolonged stay in an African country suggest exposure to Entamoeba histolytica, the causative agent of amebiasis. This protozoal infection commonly occurs in tropical regions, including Africa. Trypanosomosis (choice B) is caused by Trypanosoma species transmitted by tsetse flies, primarily found in sub-Saharan Africa. Leishmaniasis (choice C) is transmitted by sandflies and presents with skin lesions or visceral involvement, not acute gastrointestinal symptoms. Malaria (choice D) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted by mosquitoes and typically presents with fever, not acute gastrointestinal disorders. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect based on the patient's clinical presentation and travel history.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured, revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococcus, but it is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae is Gram-negative but is not a diplococcus, and it is not fermentative. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided in the question, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent.
Question 7 of 9
A worker of a cattle farm consulted a surgeon about fever up to 40oC, headache, weakness. Objective examination of his back revealed hyperaemia and a dark red infiltration up to 5 cm in diameter with black bottom in the center and some pustules. What disease are these presentations typical for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, and the skin lesion described (hyperemic with a dark red infiltration, black center, and pustules) are characteristic of cutaneous anthrax. The black center is known as an eschar. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, commonly found in cattle. Plague (choice B) typically presents with swollen lymph nodes (buboes) and is caused by Yersinia pestis. Tularemia (choice C) presents with fever, ulcer at the site of infection, and lymphadenopathy, caused by Francisella tularensis. Furuncle (choice D) is a localized skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus, presenting as a red, swollen, and painful bump.
Question 8 of 9
Specimen of a patient's sputum was stained with the following dyes and reagents: Ziehl's solution, methylene blue solution, 5% solutoin of sulfuric acid. What staining method was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ziehl-Neelsen staining method was applied. 1. Ziehl's solution is used as a primary stain in Ziehl-Neelsen staining for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 2. Sulfuric acid is used as a decolorizer to remove excess stain. 3. Methylene blue is not part of the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method. 4. Burri's, Gram's, and Peshkov's staining methods are not used for acid-fast staining.
Question 9 of 9
During examination of the patient's oral cavity a dentist noticed deformation of the teeth and a crescent indentation of the upper right incisor. The teeth are undersized, barrel-shaped – tooth cervix is wider than its edge. The patient uses a hearing aid, suffers from visual impairment. What type of syphilis affects teeth in such way?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Late congenital syphilis. This is because the patient presents with Hutchinson's teeth, which are a characteristic feature of late congenital syphilis. Hutchinson's teeth are small, barrel-shaped teeth with a wider cervix and notched incisors. The patient's history of visual impairment and hearing aid use also support the diagnosis of late congenital syphilis, as these are common manifestations of this stage of the disease. Choice A, Primary syphilis, is incorrect because it typically presents with a painless sore at the site of infection, not dental abnormalities. Choice B, Early congenital syphilis, is incorrect as dental abnormalities in this stage are usually more severe, such as mulberry molars. Choice C, Neurosyphilis, is incorrect as it primarily affects the central nervous system and does not typically present with dental abnormalities.