ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.
Question 3 of 5
In assessing a patient for signs of serotonin syndrome, which of the following symptoms would be consistent with this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms: hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia (choice A) are not typical findings in serotonin syndrome. Hypotension, tachycardia, and hypothermia (choice C) are also not consistent with serotonin syndrome. Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperthermia (choice D) do not align with the characteristic symptoms of serotonin syndrome. Recognizing the key symptoms of serotonin syndrome is crucial for prompt identification and intervention to prevent serious complications.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.