Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened energy levels, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Providing a structured and low-stimulus environment is crucial in managing manic episodes. This intervention helps reduce overstimulation and provides a calm and predictable setting, which can be beneficial in helping the patient regain control and stability. Group activities and high-energy physical activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania by increasing stimulation and excitement. Allowing the patient to set their schedule may not provide the necessary structure needed during a manic episode, hence making it less appropriate.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.' Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to the risk of dependence. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and other adverse effects, so they are not typically used for long-term maintenance therapy (choice A). They are not considered first-line treatments for panic disorder (choice B) and are not primarily used to treat depression symptoms (choice D), as their main indication is for anxiety and panic disorders.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.