ATI RN
Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which technique would provide the best pain relief for a pregnant woman with an occiput posterior position?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sacral pressure. This technique involves applying pressure to the sacrum to alleviate back pain associated with an occiput posterior position. The pressure helps relieve tension and discomfort in the lower back, providing effective pain relief for the pregnant woman. A: Neuromuscular disassociation is not specific to addressing the pain associated with the occiput posterior position in pregnancy. B: Effleurage is a gentle massage technique that may provide some relaxation but may not be as effective as sacral pressure for pain relief in this specific scenario. C: Psychoprophylaxis is a method of preparing for childbirth through education and relaxation techniques, but it may not directly target the pain caused by the occiput posterior position. In summary, sacral pressure is the most appropriate technique as it directly addresses the specific pain associated with the occiput posterior position in pregnancy, unlike the other choices.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is determining the G/TPAL of a patient at her first prenatal visit. The patient informs the nurse she delivered a set of twins at 32 weeks of gestation who are now 5 years old, delivered her first child 8 years ago 1 week early, and miscarried at 2 months' gestation 3 years ago. What is this patient's Gravida [G] and Parity [P] using the G/TPAL nomenclature?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: G4 P2113. To determine the Gravida (G) and Parity (P) of the patient: - Gravida (G): The patient has been pregnant a total of 4 times (twins at 32 weeks, first child 1 week early, miscarriage at 2 months, and current pregnancy). Therefore, G is 4. - Parity (P): P is divided into four categories: term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and living children (L). The patient delivered twins at 32 weeks (P2), her first child 1 week early (T1), and had a miscarriage at 2 months (A1). Therefore, the Parity is P2A1L3, represented as 2113. Other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the patient's obstetric history.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is discussing the purpose of the physical examination with a patient at the first prenatal visit. What information does the nurse include in the discussion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the physical exam at the first prenatal visit aims to confirm the patient's current health status, assess baseline health indicators, and identify any potential risks or issues that may affect the pregnancy. This information is crucial for developing a personalized care plan for the patient and ensuring a healthy pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect because determining nutritional risk factors typically involves assessing dietary habits, weight, and specific nutrient deficiencies, which are not solely addressed through a physical exam. Choice C is incorrect as confirming the diagnosis of STIs would require specific testing and not solely rely on a physical examination. Choice D is incorrect because while urinalysis may be part of the physical exam, its primary purpose is not solely to include urinalysis but to comprehensively evaluate the patient's overall health.
Question 4 of 5
At the first prenatal visit, the patient informs the nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 18, 2024. Using Naegle's Rule, calculate the patient's EDD.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 25-Nov-24. Naegle's Rule is to add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), then subtract 3 months, and finally add 1 year. In this case, LMP was February 18, 2024. Adding 7 days gives February 25, 2024. Subtracting 3 months gives November 25, 2024. Adding 1 year gives the estimated due date (EDD) of November 25, 2024. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation steps of Naegle's Rule.
Question 5 of 5
What patient symptom at 10 weeks of gestation requires further investigation by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: weight loss. At 10 weeks of gestation, weight loss is concerning as it may indicate potential issues like hyperemesis gravidarum or inadequate nutrition, posing risks to both the mother and fetus. Breast tenderness (A), infrequent nausea (B), and changes in appetite (C) are common symptoms during early pregnancy and may not necessarily indicate serious problems. Weight loss (D) should be investigated promptly to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the developing baby.