ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which technique is most effective for assessing the patient's abdominal organ size?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Palpation. Palpation is the most effective technique for assessing the patient's abdominal organ size as it allows the healthcare provider to feel and evaluate the size, texture, and consistency of the abdominal organs through touch. This hands-on approach provides valuable information about any abnormalities or tenderness in the organs. Inspection (choice A) involves looking at the abdomen for any visible signs but does not provide information on organ size. Percussion (choice C) involves tapping on the abdomen to assess the density of underlying structures, not specifically organ size. Auscultation (choice D) involves listening to sounds within the abdomen and does not directly assess organ size. Palpation is the preferred method for accurately assessing abdominal organ size due to its tactile nature.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 3 of 9
Which medication should be used to treat anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. It is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. Diphenhydramine (B) and steroids (C) are used as adjunct therapies but do not provide immediate relief like epinephrine. Albuterol (D) is used for bronchospasm in asthma, not for anaphylaxis. In summary, epinephrine is the most effective and life-saving medication for treating anaphylaxis.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial as warfarin increases the risk of bleeding events. Signs of bleeding may include easy bruising, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool. Hypertension (B), hyperglycemia (C), and hypokalemia (D) are not direct effects of warfarin. Monitoring for these conditions may be important for other medications or conditions, but they are not the primary concern when a patient is prescribed warfarin.
Question 5 of 9
A woman has noticed that her son, who has a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: impetigo. The characteristics of moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base are classic features of impetigo, a bacterial skin infection commonly seen in children. Impetigo is highly contagious and commonly affects the face and buttocks. The presence of blisters and scabs further supports the diagnosis of impetigo. Explanation of other choices: A: Eczema typically presents as dry, itchy patches of skin with redness and scaling. It does not usually manifest as vesicles or blisters. C: Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, presents as a painful rash with grouped vesicles on one side of the body along a nerve pathway. It is uncommon in children and usually affects older individuals. D: Diaper dermatitis is a common rash in infants due to prolonged skin exposure to urine and feces. It typically presents as redness, irritation, and possibly skin breakdown in the diaper
Question 6 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 7 of 9
Which nursing measure is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image in a client with Kawasaki disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: explaining progression of the disease to the client and family. This measure helps the client and family understand the disease, leading to better coping and acceptance, thus promoting a positive body image. Administering immune globulin (A) is not directly related to body image. Assessing extremities (B) and heart sounds (D) are important for monitoring the disease but do not directly impact body image.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes this to indicate that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a normal pupillary light reflex involves the constriction of both pupils in response to bright light. This reflex is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, specifically the parasympathetic nervous system. When light is detected by the retina, signals are sent to the brain which then triggers the constriction of both pupils to reduce the amount of light entering the eye. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pupillary light reflex. Vision convergence, light reflection, and focusing the image at the center of the pupil are not directly related to the pupillary light reflex.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingernails is characterized by an increased angle between the nail base and the nail plate (usually 180 degrees or greater) and a spongy texture at the nail base. This is due to underlying tissue changes associated with conditions like lung disease. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the characteristic findings of clubbing. Choices A, B, and C do not align with clubbing features. Choice A describes tenderness and firmness, not sponginess and increased angle. Choice B mentions a convex profile and ridges, which are not specific to clubbing. Choice C includes an angle of 150 degrees, which is less than the typical angle seen in clubbing.