ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which systolic blood pressure measurement is classified as prehypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: According to the blood pressure classification, a systolic blood pressure between 120-139 mmHg is considered prehypertension. This range indicates an increased risk for developing hypertension if not managed appropriately. Therefore, a systolic blood pressure of 119 mmHg falls into the prehypertension category. A systolic pressure of 106 mmHg is within the normal range, while 130 mmHg and above would be classified as stage 1 and stage 2 hypertension respectively, not prehypertension.
Question 2 of 9
What is the most common type of kidney stone?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most common type of kidney stone is calcium-based, specifically calcium oxalate. This is usually due to high calcium levels in the urine, which can be caused by dietary factors or certain metabolic disorders. Cystine stones, on the other hand, are less common and occur in individuals with a hereditary disorder leading to excessive excretion of certain amino acids. Struvite stones are often formed in response to an infection. Uric acid stones may occur in individuals who do not consume sufficient fluids or who lose too much fluid, among other factors. Therefore, while all these substances can form stones in the kidneys, calcium stones are the most common.
Question 3 of 9
Which nutrient is most important for the prevention of osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calcium is the most important nutrient for bone health and the prevention of osteoporosis. Calcium plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density and strength. Vitamin A is important for vision and immune function but is not directly related to bone health. Iron is essential for oxygen transport in the blood, while protein is important for muscle growth and repair. However, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium is the key nutrient.
Question 4 of 9
What differentiates one amino acid from another?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The side chain, also known as the R group, is what differentiates one amino acid from another. It imparts unique properties to each amino acid, thereby influencing their roles and functions in proteins. The amine group (Choice A) and the acid group (Choice B) are components of all amino acids and do not cause the differences among various amino acids. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests that none of the given options account for the differences, which is not true as the side chain does.
Question 5 of 9
What gastrointestinal side effects are associated with antisecretory drugs such as proton pump inhibitors?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of antisecretory drug that can cause nausea and vomiting by altering stomach acid production. These are common side effects associated with PPIs. Gastroparesis (B) is a condition that affects the stomach muscles and prevents proper stomach emptying; it is not a side effect of PPIs. Dumping syndrome (C) is a group of symptoms that can occur after having part of your stomach removed and is not a side effect of PPIs. While some people might experience flatulence (D) when taking PPIs, it is not as commonly associated with these drugs as the effects of nausea and vomiting.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following are examples of mechanical digestion? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mechanical digestion involves physical movements that break down food in the digestive tract. Segmentation (choice B) and peristalsis (choice D), which are both movements of the muscles in the digestive tract, are examples of this type of digestion. Heat (choice A), on the other hand, is related to chemical digestion, not mechanical digestion. Therefore, choice C (Option B and D) is the correct answer as it includes both examples of mechanical digestion provided in the choices. Choices A and D are incorrect because heat (choice A) is not a mechanical digestion process, and peristalsis (choice D) is a movement that helps propel food along the digestive tract but is not directly involved in breaking down food physically.
Question 7 of 9
What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.
Question 8 of 9
What is a likely effect on a patient whose lab results reveal hypoalbuminemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypoalbuminemia, which refers to low albumin levels in the blood, is often associated with edema. Albumin helps maintain oncotic pressure, which keeps fluid within blood vessels. When albumin levels are low, this pressure decreases, leading to fluid leakage from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. The other choices are less likely effects of hypoalbuminemia. Hypoalbuminemia doesn't directly cause infections (Choice A), rickets (Choice B) caused by vitamin D deficiency, or hypertension (Choice C) associated with factors like high sodium intake, obesity, and genetic predisposition.
Question 9 of 9
Proteolytic enzymes are most likely to break down which food type?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Proteolytic enzymes target proteins for breakdown into amino acids. Carbohydrates are broken down by enzymes like amylase, while fats are broken down by lipase. Lipids, which include fats, are not specifically targeted by proteolytic enzymes.