ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which structure in bacteria allows them to exchange genetic material during conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pili in bacteria are responsible for conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. They form a bridge between donor and recipient cells, facilitating the exchange of DNA. Flagella are for movement, capsules for protection, and ribosomes for protein synthesis. Pili is the only structure directly involved in genetic material exchange.
Question 2 of 9
Bacterial infections of the female reproductive system include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaginitis is a common bacterial infection in the female reproductive system. 2. Toxic shock syndrome can be caused by certain bacterial infections. 3. Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium often due to bacterial infections. 4. Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes, commonly caused by bacteria. Summary: - Choice B: Nephritis is a kidney infection, not related to female reproductive system infections. - Choice C: Nephritis and cystitis are not specific to the female reproductive system. - Choice D: Cystitis is a bladder infection, not typically considered part of female reproductive system infections.
Question 3 of 9
A patient complains of acute spastic abdominal pain, frequent urge to defecate, liquid bloody feces with mucus. Laboratory analysis of fecal smear revealed inconstant in shape organisms with erythrocyte. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amebiasis. Amebiasis is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, presenting with symptoms like acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea with mucus, and inconstant shape organisms seen in fecal smear. The presence of erythrocytes supports the diagnosis due to the parasite's ability to invade intestinal mucosa causing bleeding. Choice B (Lambliasis) presents with different symptoms like steatorrhea and fatigue. Choice C (Schistosomiasis) is mainly associated with liver and urinary symptoms. Choice D (Intestinal trichomoniasis) commonly presents with watery diarrhea and does not typically cause bloody stools. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and fecal smear findings, Amebiasis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
What is the primary purpose of a bacterial capsule?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Enhancing virulence by preventing phagocytosis. Bacterial capsules help bacteria evade the immune system by preventing phagocytosis, a process where immune cells engulf and destroy pathogens. This enhances the bacteria's virulence and ability to cause infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bacterial capsules do not directly contribute to protein synthesis, protect against desiccation, or facilitate motility.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive bacteria?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thick peptidoglycan layer. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during Gram staining. This thick layer is a key characteristic feature that helps differentiate Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain due to their thick peptidoglycan layer. 2. This thick layer provides structural support and protection to the cell. 3. Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane, which is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria (Choice A). 4. Thin peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice B). 5. Presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice D). In summary, the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is true regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.
Question 7 of 9
Bacterial replication is accomplished primarily by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Binary fission is the correct answer for bacterial replication because it is the process by which bacteria divide into two identical daughter cells. During binary fission, the bacterial cell replicates its DNA, forms a septum dividing the cell into two, and eventually splits into two daughter cells. This process is specific to prokaryotic cells such as bacteria and is different from mitosis and meiosis, which are processes specific to eukaryotic cells. Cytokinesis is the final step of cell division in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, but it is not the primary mechanism of bacterial replication.
Question 8 of 9
A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 9 of 9
The function of beta-lactamase in bacteria is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Break down antibiotics like penicillin. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by bacteria to inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin by breaking the beta-lactam ring. This mechanism helps bacteria resist the antibiotic's effects. The other choices are incorrect because beta-lactamase does not enhance protein synthesis, facilitate DNA replication, or transport nutrients. It specifically targets and deactivates beta-lactam antibiotics, making choice A the most appropriate answer.