ATI RN
Pediatric Nclex Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which strategy is most effective in preventing existing challenging behaviors?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, addressing challenging behaviors in children requires a comprehensive and individualized approach. Option B, individualized interventions, is the most effective strategy in preventing existing challenging behaviors. This approach focuses on understanding the underlying causes of the behavior and tailoring interventions to meet the specific needs of the child. By targeting the root cause, individualized interventions promote positive behavior change and long-term success. Ignoring the behaviors (Option A) can lead to escalation or reinforcement of the behavior if the root cause is not addressed. Providing flexible rules (Option C) may lack consistency and structure, which are essential for children with challenging behaviors. Punishment (Option D) can have negative consequences, such as increased aggression or anxiety, and does not address the underlying reasons for the behavior. Educationally, it is important for pediatric nurses to be skilled in assessing and managing challenging behaviors in children. By implementing individualized interventions, nurses can support positive behavior change, promote a therapeutic environment, and enhance the overall well-being of the child. Understanding the impact of different strategies on pediatric behavior management is crucial for providing holistic and effective care to children.
Question 2 of 5
Diagnosis of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children up to the age of 16 years requires the presence of at least
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder that impacts a child's ability to focus, control impulses, and regulate behavior. The correct answer, C, states that a diagnosis of ADHD in children up to age 16 requires the presence of at least 6 symptoms of inattention or 6 symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity for at least 6 months in two or more environments. This criterion aligns with the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for ADHD. Option A is incorrect as it does not meet the required number of symptoms for diagnosis, which is set at 6. Option B also falls short of the necessary symptom count. Option D is incorrect because although it specifies 6 symptoms, the duration of at least 3 months is not in line with the diagnostic criteria of at least 6 months. Educationally, understanding the diagnostic criteria for ADHD is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working with pediatric populations. By knowing the specific symptom count and duration required for diagnosis, healthcare professionals can accurately assess, diagnose, and provide appropriate interventions for children with ADHD. This knowledge ensures that children receive the necessary support and treatment to manage their symptoms effectively.
Question 3 of 5
You are evaluating a 6-year-old child with ALL on interim maintenance phase who has frequent mucositis and myelosuppression that needs frequent discontinuation of his treatment. Of the following, the MOST valuable test for this child is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most valuable test for the 6-year-old child with Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) experiencing mucositis and myelosuppression is pharmacogenetic testing of the thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT) gene (Option B). This is crucial because TPMT gene testing helps determine the child's ability to metabolize thiopurine medications commonly used in ALL treatment, such as mercaptopurine. Children with ALL are often treated with these medications, and those with TPMT genetic variations are at a higher risk of developing severe toxicities. By identifying TPMT gene status, healthcare providers can personalize the child's treatment plan, adjust medication doses, and reduce the risk of adverse effects, ensuring more effective and safer treatment. Option A (complete blood count) is a standard test for monitoring blood cell counts but does not provide specific information about drug metabolism like TPMT testing does. Option C (renal function test) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to optimizing ALL treatment. Option D (bone marrow study) is valuable for assessing disease response and progression in ALL but does not provide information on drug metabolism or toxicity risk associated with thiopurine medications. Understanding the importance of pharmacogenetic testing in pediatric oncology not only highlights the significance of personalized medicine but also emphasizes the need for comprehensive care in managing treatment-related complications in children with cancer. By integrating genetic testing into clinical practice, healthcare providers can enhance treatment outcomes, minimize risks, and improve the overall quality of care for pediatric patients with ALL.
Question 4 of 5
A 9mo-old infant develops a left adrenal mass; histological examination with genetic characteristics confirms neuroblastoma. Which of the following carries a better outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric oncology, understanding the genetic characteristics of tumors like neuroblastoma is crucial for determining prognosis and guiding treatment decisions. In this case, the correct answer is B) hyperdiploidy. Hyperdiploidy in neuroblastoma is associated with a more favorable prognosis because it indicates a more differentiated and less aggressive tumor phenotype. Option A) amplification of the MYCN proto-oncogene is actually a negative prognostic factor in neuroblastoma, associated with high-risk disease and poorer outcomes. Option C) loss of heterozygosity of 17q chromosome and option D) loss of 1p chromosome are also negative prognostic factors in neuroblastoma, indicating more aggressive disease behavior and poorer outcomes. Educationally, understanding these genetic markers and their implications on neuroblastoma prognosis is essential for nurses and healthcare professionals caring for pediatric oncology patients. By grasping the significance of hyperdiploidy as a positive prognostic factor, medical professionals can better interpret diagnostic results, communicate effectively with families, and contribute to the comprehensive care of pediatric oncology patients.
Question 5 of 5
The serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level is elevated with some malignant germ cell tumors (GCTs) especially endodermal sinus tumors; it can be used as a measure of treatment response and during follow-up after completion of chemotherapy. However, it is normally elevated during infancy. At which age does AFP physiologically fall to normal adult level?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C) one year. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the yolk sac and liver of a developing fetus. Physiologically, AFP levels are high during infancy due to its production by the fetal liver. However, AFP levels start to decrease gradually after birth and typically fall to the normal adult range by one year of age. This is due to the maturation and functional development of the liver in the first year of life. Option A) three months is incorrect because AFP levels are still expected to be elevated at this age as part of normal development. Option B) eight months is also too early for AFP levels to reach the normal adult range. Option D) three years is too late for AFP levels to normalize, as this process occurs much earlier in infancy. Educationally, understanding the normal developmental timeline of AFP levels is important in pediatric oncology for monitoring response to treatment in cases of malignant germ cell tumors. It also aids in differentiating normal physiological elevations from pathological conditions, improving clinical decision-making and patient care.