Which statement(s) about liberation of drugs is/are true? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: all the above. A: A drug must be dissolved in body fluids before it can be absorbed into body tissues - True, as drugs need to be in a soluble form to pass through cell membranes. B: A solid drug taken orally must disintegrate and dissolve in GI fluids to allow for absorption - True, as solid drugs need to be broken down for absorption. C: The process of converting the drug into a soluble form can be controlled by the dosage form - True, as different dosage forms affect drug dissolution. Summary: All statements are true as they explain crucial aspects of drug liberation necessary for absorption and efficacy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cryptococcus neoformans: amphotericin B. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus causing severe meningitis in immunocompromised individuals. Amphotericin B is the first-line treatment for cryptococcal meningitis due to its efficacy against the pathogen. It works by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, disrupting membrane integrity. Griseofulvin (choice B) is used for dermatophyte infections like Trichophyton, not for Cryptococcus. Fluconazole (choice C) is used for Histoplasma and Aspergillus infections but not as effective against Cryptococcus as amphotericin B. Aspergillus fumigatus is commonly treated with voriconazole or amphotericin B, not fluconazole as in choice D.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Voriconazole. This drug is appropriate for the patient as it is a broad-spectrum antifungal agent commonly used to treat invasive fungal infections. It is effective against a wide range of fungal species, including Candida and Aspergillus. Voriconazole has good tissue penetration and high bioavailability, making it suitable for serious systemic fungal infections. Flucytosine (A) is mainly used in combination with other antifungal agents and is not a standalone therapy. Terbinafine (B) is primarily used for dermatophyte infections and not for systemic fungal infections. Griseofulvin (C) is used for superficial fungal infections like ringworm and is not effective against systemic fungal infections like those requiring Voriconazole.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Enoxaparin. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin commonly prescribed for post-surgery blood clot prevention due to its effectiveness in inhibiting blood clot formation. Warfarin (A) is primarily used for long-term anticoagulation therapy, not typically for post-surgery prevention. Aspirin (C) is a mild antiplatelet agent and is not as effective as enoxaparin for post-surgery clot prevention. Clopidogrel (D) is also an antiplatelet drug but is not commonly prescribed for post-surgery blood clot prevention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increasing insulin secretion and inhibiting glucagon release. Liraglutide is a GLP-1 receptor agonist that stimulates insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells and inhibits glucagon secretion. This leads to improved blood glucose control in patients with diabetes. Choice B is incorrect because liraglutide does not primarily work by improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Choice C is incorrect because liraglutide does not inhibit the absorption of glucose in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect because liraglutide does not inhibit the enzyme that breaks down incretin hormones.