Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: it is a live attenuated vaccine. This is true because the mumps vaccine is indeed a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease. This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is typically recommended for all individuals to prevent the spread of the disease. B: the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines - this is incorrect as the mumps vaccine is often given in combination with measles and rubella vaccines as the MMR vaccine. C: the vaccine is administered orally - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is usually administered via injection, not orally.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic atrophic rhinitis. This infection is typical for the upper respiratory tract as it affects the nasal mucosa and sinuses. It is characterized by inflammation and atrophy of the nasal mucosa. Psittacosis (A) is a zoonotic infection transmitted from birds, affecting the lungs. Mycoplasma bronchitis (B) is a lower respiratory tract infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Legionnaires disease (D) is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to the upper respiratory tract.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaccinia is a laboratory product used in smallpox vaccination. 2. Variola is the virus that causes smallpox, not a laboratory product. 3. Monkeypox is a naturally occurring virus, not a laboratory product. 4. Cowpox can be found in nature and is used in vaccine production, but it is not a laboratory product like Vaccinia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is commonly associated with UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesins that allow it to attach to the bladder wall, causing infection. E. coli is also a common inhabitant of the intestinal tract, making it easily able to migrate to the urinary system. Explanation of incorrect choices: B: Clostridium botulinum - This bacterium causes botulism, a rare foodborne illness, not UTIs. C: Staphylococcus aureus - Often associated with skin infections and abscesses, not UTIs. D: Bacillus cereus - Known for causing food poisoning, not UTIs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis. Furasolidone (A) is not commonly used for tuberculosis, Bactrim (B) is not a first-line drug for tuberculosis, and Streptocide (C) is not as effective as Rifampicin.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacterial spores are NOT used for cell division. Bacterial spores are dormant, resistant forms of bacteria that are formed in response to harsh environmental conditions. They are not involved in cell division but rather serve as a survival mechanism for the bacteria. A: They can deform the cell or not - This is true. Bacterial spores can deform the cell or not depending on the conditions. B: They can be terminal, subterminal, and central - This is true. Bacterial spores can be located at different positions within the bacterial cell. D: They are formed for 6-8h - This is incorrect. The formation of bacterial spores can take variable time periods depending on the species and environmental conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.