Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: it is a live attenuated vaccine. This is true because the mumps vaccine is indeed a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease. This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is typically recommended for all individuals to prevent the spread of the disease. B: the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines - this is incorrect as the mumps vaccine is often given in combination with measles and rubella vaccines as the MMR vaccine. C: the vaccine is administered orally - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is usually administered via injection, not orally.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Microscopy of blood smears. Malaria diagnosis is confirmed by identifying the Plasmodium parasite in a blood smear. This step is crucial as it directly visualizes the causative agent. The other choices are incorrect as they do not directly detect malaria parasites. B: Studying lymph node punctate is not specific for malaria. C: Urinalysis does not show malaria parasites. D: Studying cerebrospinal fluid is used to diagnose conditions affecting the brain and spinal cord, not malaria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing abscesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (B) is Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Micrococcus luteus (C) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (25-37 °C) because mesophilic bacteria thrive best at moderate temperatures typical of most environments, making 25-37 °C their optimum range. This range allows for optimal enzyme activity and growth. Choice B (55-65 °C) is incorrect as it is more suitable for thermophilic bacteria. Choice C (15-18 °C) is too low for mesophiles to thrive efficiently. Choice D (38-45 °C) is too high and is more suitable for thermophiles. Ultimately, the correct answer aligns with the typical temperature range where mesophilic bacteria are most active and abundant.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in young adults and adolescents. It is known for causing fever, headache, and neck stiffness. The other choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae, are not typically Gram-negative diplococci and are not commonly associated with the symptoms described. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive coccus, Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Gram stain process involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization and counterstaining. The primary differentiation is based on the cell wall structure, distinguishing bacteria into Gram-positive (retain purple color) and Gram-negative (lose purple color). This classification is crucial in microbiology for treatment decisions as it correlates with different antibiotic susceptibilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Gram stain process does not primarily focus on flagella, shape, or motility of bacteria.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Escherichia coli is known to produce a toxin called colibactin that targets cholesterol. Step 2: Colibactin disrupts cholesterol metabolism in host cells. Step 3: This disruption can lead to various health issues. Step 4: Streptococcus pyogenes produces different toxins, not specifically targeting cholesterol. Step 5: Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces diphtheria toxin, not targeting cholesterol. Step 6: Aeromonas hydrophila produces various toxins, but not known for targeting cholesterol. Summary: Escherichia coli produces toxins that specifically target cholesterol, making it the correct choice over the other options.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.