Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true:

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microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: it is a live attenuated vaccine. This is true because the mumps vaccine is indeed a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease. This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is typically recommended for all individuals to prevent the spread of the disease. B: the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines - this is incorrect as the mumps vaccine is often given in combination with measles and rubella vaccines as the MMR vaccine. C: the vaccine is administered orally - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is usually administered via injection, not orally.

Question 2 of 9

Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.

Question 3 of 9

Cell mediated immunity has a leading role in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity plays a crucial role in combating infections with intracellular pathogens by activating T cells to directly kill infected cells. Facultative and obligate intracellular pathogens, such as viruses and some bacteria, require cell-mediated immunity for effective clearance. Option A is correct due to the specificity of this immune response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are primarily associated with humoral immunity involving antibodies and not T cell responses against intracellular pathogens.

Question 4 of 9

Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed (Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) can produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria like E. coli and P. aeruginosa. Staphylococcus aureus, a Gram-positive bacterium, can also produce endotoxins called superantigens that can trigger a massive immune response leading to septic shock. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct. Choices A, B, and C alone are incorrect because they do not account for the fact that all three bacteria listed produce endotoxins that can cause septic shock.

Question 6 of 9

Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: plasma coagulase. This enzyme is essential for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus as it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a protective barrier around the bacteria. This helps the bacteria evade the host's immune system. Beta lactamase (A) is not directly related to pathogenicity but rather resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics. Catalase (C) is produced by many bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus, but it is not a specific indicator of pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as plasma coagulase is indeed an important criterion for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 7 of 9

Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Louis Pasteur. He conducted experiments that definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation through his famous swan-neck flask experiment. By showing that microorganisms only appeared in the broth when exposed to air, Pasteur demonstrated that they did not arise spontaneously. John Needham's experiments were inconclusive, Joseph Lister is known for his contributions to antiseptic surgery, and Robert Koch is credited with developing Koch's postulates for identifying the causative agents of diseases, but neither of them directly contributed to ending the controversy about spontaneous generation.

Question 8 of 9

Bacterial ribosomes consist mainly of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: rRNA. Bacterial ribosomes consist mainly of ribosomal RNA (rRNA), which plays a crucial role in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and proteins, with rRNA being the major component. rRNA serves as the structural and catalytic component of the ribosome, aiding in the binding of mRNA and tRNA during translation. Carbohydrates (A) and lipids (B) are not primary components of ribosomes, and DNA (C) is not found in ribosomes as they are involved in storing genetic information, not in protein synthesis.

Question 9 of 9

Aflatoxins are produced by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genus Aspergillus. Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced by certain species of fungi, particularly Aspergillus species. Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus are well-known producers of aflatoxins. These fungi can contaminate crops such as peanuts, corn, and tree nuts, leading to potential health risks. Cryptococcus (A), Actinomyces (B), and Streptococcus (C) are not known to produce aflatoxins. It is important to be aware of the sources and implications of aflatoxin contamination to ensure food safety and public health.

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