ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which statement regarding the use of zolpidem (Ambien) for insomnia is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A 19-year-old male college student develops sore throat, chills, and fever. Instead of going to the student health service for care, he takes a few of his roommates' amoxicillin antibiotics. Over the next few hours, he develops a maculopapular rash on his palms and swelling of his lips. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amoxicillin causing rash and lip swelling suggests allergy. Penicilloic acid , a penicillin degradation product, acts as a hapten, triggering IgE-mediated reactions. DNA gyrase , RNA synthase , and telomerase are unrelated. Transferase (E) is vague. This type I hypersensitivity fits the rapid onset.
Question 3 of 5
A 58-year-old woman who is obese comes to the emergency department with diaphoresis and crushing chest pain that radiates to her left arm. The physician orders an ECG and checks her cardiac enzymes to confirm his suspicion of myocardial infarction. Because of the quick response and intervention, she survives and is ultimately discharged with a prescription for low-dose daily aspirin to inhibit platelet aggregation. Which of the following enzymes is the intended target of aspirin in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed has having 'long QT syndrome.' The patient is experiencing significant pain following a bout with shingles. What would be an appropriate drug for his pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Long QT syndrome predisposes patients to torsades de pointes, so pain management must avoid QT-prolonging drugs. Amitriptyline, a TCA, extends QT via sodium channel blockade, risking arrhythmias. Fentanyl, an opioid, has minimal QT impact and relieves severe pain but carries respiratory depression risks, less ideal for shingles' neuropathic pain. Acyclovir treats shingles' viral cause, not pain directly. Diazepam addresses anxiety, not pain. Gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, targets neuropathic pain (common in postherpetic neuralgia) by modulating calcium channels, with no significant QT prolongation, making it safe and effective here. Its efficacy in nerve pain, lack of cardiac risk, and suitability for chronic management post-shingles distinguish it as the best option.
Question 5 of 5
The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, commonly causes sexual dysfunction, including delayed ejaculation, affecting up to 70% of patients due to increased serotonin levels impacting sexual response. This side effect can significantly affect quality of life, making it a valid concern warranting physician notification , as the doctor might adjust the dose or switch to a drug with fewer sexual side effects, like bupropion. Choice B minimizes the patient's experience, prioritizing depression over well-being, which could reduce compliance. Choice C assumes a drastic outcome (suicide) without evidence, escalating unnecessarily. Choice D inaccurately suggests spontaneous resolution, which is rare without intervention. The nurse's best action is to advocate for the patient by informing the physician, ensuring a tailored treatment plan, making choice A the most patient-centered and proactive response.