Which statement regarding ethical concepts is true?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which statement regarding ethical concepts is true?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because a surrogate is indeed a competent adult designated to make healthcare decisions for an incapacitated person. This individual is typically chosen by the person themselves through a legal document like a healthcare proxy. This ensures that someone trusted can make important decisions when the person is unable to do so. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a living will and healthcare proxy serve different purposes, a signed donor card does not guarantee organ donation in the event of brain death (medical criteria are also required), and a persistent vegetative state is different from brain death (brain death implies irreversible cessation of brain function while a vegetative state involves some level of brain function).

Question 2 of 9

A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assign the client to a negative air-flow room. This is crucial to prevent the spread of TB to other patients and healthcare workers. Negative air-flow rooms help contain airborne pathogens. Option A is not sufficient as it only protects the client, not others. Option C is important for infection control but not the priority in this situation. Option D is not as effective as placing the client in a negative air-flow room. Overall, option B is the best choice to ensure the safety of everyone in the unit.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.

Question 4 of 9

Comparing the patient’s current (home) medications with those ordered during hospitalization and communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider when the patient is transferred within an organization or to another setting a re strategies toward best achieving what patient related goal?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Reconciling medications is essential for patient safety as it involves comparing current and ordered medications to ensure accuracy. Step 2: This process helps prevent medication errors, adverse drug reactions, and duplications across different care settings. Step 3: Communicating a complete list of medications to the next care provider ensures continuity of care and reduces the risk of medication discrepancies. Step 4: By reconciling medications across the continuum of care, healthcare providers can better coordinate patient care and optimize treatment outcomes. In summary, choice C is correct as it focuses on medication reconciliation to improve patient safety and care coordination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the comprehensive process of reconciling medications across care settings.

Question 5 of 9

The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade. 1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade. 3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony. 4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation. B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones. C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity. D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.

Question 8 of 9

To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.

Question 9 of 9

A patient in the ICU is recovering from open-heart surgery. The nurse enters his room and observes that his daughter is performing effleurage on his arms and talking in a low voice about an upcoming family vacation that is planned. The room is dimly lit, and she hears the constant beeping of his heart monitor. From the hall she hears the cries of a patient in pain. Which of the following are likely stressors for the patient? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The beeping of the heart monitor is a likely stressor for the patient recovering from open-heart surgery in the ICU. The constant beeping can cause anxiety and uncertainty about their health status. The daughter's conversation and effleurage are likely comforting and supportive for the patient, reducing stress. The dim lighting may create a calming environment, and the distant cries of a patient in pain may evoke empathy but may not directly stress the recovering patient. Therefore, the beeping of the heart monitor stands out as a stressor among the choices provided.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days