Which statement is incorrect regarding post streptococcal GN?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Antibiotics for strep don't prevent post-strep GN immune-mediated (e.g., anti-strep antibodies), not active infection, incorrect. Childhood predominance true. 7-14 days post-throat/skin accurate latency. Non-preventable nature distinguishes the error, key to GN's pathogenesis, unlike timing or demographic truths.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin 1 g + ofloxacin 400 mg once treats urethritis (e.g., Chlamydia/gonorrhea) in young males with dysuria 5-10 WBC fits STD, most appropriate. Ciprofloxacin 2 weeks is pyelonephritis overkill. TMP-SMX 3 days is female UTI short. Cephalexin 7 days lacks STD coverage mismatch. STD regimen distinguishes it, key to age/context, unlike UTI-focused options.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Chronic glomerulonephritis features hyalinized glomeruli, granular subcapsular surface, shrunken kidneys, and prior disease history not normal calyces, enlargement, or no history. Hyalinization marks end-stage scarring, critical for diagnosis, contrasting with acute features like normal surfaces or enlarged kidneys typical of early inflammation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Medullipin I (hypotensive) isn't linked to peritubular capillary endothelium, unlike PCT (brush border), bladder (transitional), DCT (macula densa), and afferent arterioles (renin). This corrects renal associations, key for physiology, contrasting with true pairings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: DCT reabsorbs Na+, Cl-, and water (ADH-dependent), but secretes K+ not reabsorbed. This distinguishes DCT ion handling, key for electrolyte balance, contrasting with reabsorption norms.