Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate?

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Maternal Health Issues in the US Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate?

Correct Answer: c

Rationale: The correct answer is C) PMS is a complex poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. This statement is accurate because premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is indeed a complex condition with a wide range of symptoms that can vary greatly among individuals. The exact cause of PMS is not fully understood, and it is believed to involve a combination of hormonal fluctuations, neurotransmitter changes, and other factors. Option A is incorrect because premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is not a milder form of PMS; it is a more severe and debilitating condition that can significantly impact a person's quality of life. PMDD is not necessarily more common in young women either. Option B is incorrect because secondary dysmenorrhea is not more intense than primary dysmenorrhea. Secondary dysmenorrhea is typically caused by an underlying medical condition such as endometriosis or fibroids, while primary dysmenorrhea is usually related to normal menstrual processes. Option D is incorrect because the causes of PMS are not well-established. While hormonal fluctuations are believed to play a role, the exact mechanisms and contributing factors are still being researched. In an educational context, understanding the complexities of menstrual health issues like PMS is important for healthcare providers to provide accurate information, support, and treatment options for individuals experiencing these symptoms. By recognizing the nuances of these conditions, healthcare professionals can better address the needs of their patients and offer appropriate care and management strategies.

Question 2 of 5

A client exhibits a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheeselike discharge, along with white patches on her labia and in her vaginShe complains of intense pruritus. Which medication should the nurse practitioner order to treat this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct medication to treat the client's symptoms is Fluconazole (Option A). This client is presenting with classic symptoms of a vaginal yeast infection, also known as candidiasis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat fungal infections, including yeast infections. It works by stopping the growth of the fungus causing the infection. The other options (B) Tetracycline, (C) Clindamycin, and (D) Acyclovir are not appropriate for treating a yeast infection. Tetracycline and Clindamycin are antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like candidiasis. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections such as herpes simplex virus infections, which are unrelated to the client's symptoms. Educationally, understanding the appropriate medication for specific infections is crucial for nurses and nurse practitioners to provide safe and effective care to their patients. It is essential to differentiate between different types of infections and select the proper treatment based on the underlying cause to promote positive health outcomes for the client.

Question 3 of 5

On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a 'fishy' odor and complaints of pruritus. Based upon these findings, which condition would the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse would suspect bacterial vaginosis (BV) based on the symptoms described. BV is characterized by a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a characteristic 'fishy' odor. The presence of pruritus also aligns with BV symptoms. Candidiasis (Option B) typically presents with a thick, white, curd-like vaginal discharge and is often associated with itching and redness, rather than a fishy odor. Trichomoniasis (Option C) is characterized by frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge with a foul odor, not a 'fishy' odor. Gonorrhea (Option D) usually presents with purulent discharge and is often asymptomatic in women. Educationally, understanding the specific symptoms and diagnostic clues for different vaginal infections is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and treat patients. This case highlights the importance of recognizing key clinical manifestations to differentiate between common vaginal infections.

Question 4 of 5

Which STI does not respond well to antibiotic therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Genital herpes. Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and does not respond well to antibiotic therapy because antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections. Genital herpes requires antiviral medications for management rather than antibiotics. Chlamydia (Option A), Gonorrhea (Option B), and Syphilis (Option D) are all bacterial sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can be effectively treated with antibiotics. Chlamydia and Gonorrhea are commonly treated with antibiotics such as azithromycin or doxycycline, while Syphilis is treated with penicillin or other antibiotics depending on the stage of the infection. In an educational context, understanding the differences between viral and bacterial STIs is crucial for healthcare providers to make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. This knowledge helps in effective management of infections, prevention of complications, and reduction of transmission to others. It also highlights the importance of proper testing, diagnosis, and treatment protocols in addressing maternal health issues related to STIs in the US.

Question 5 of 5

Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is part of the normal vaginal flora in 20% to 30% of healthy pregnant women. GBS has been associated with poor pregnancy outcomes and is an important factor in neonatal morbidity and mortality. Which finding is not a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, option D, "Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) 24 hours or longer before the birth," is not a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection. This is the correct answer because GBS transmission to the baby primarily occurs during labor and delivery, especially when the amniotic sac has ruptured for an extended period, increasing the exposure time. Option A, "Positive prenatal culture," is a risk factor because it indicates the presence of GBS in the mother's genital tract, which increases the likelihood of transmission to the newborn during childbirth. Option B, "Preterm birth at 37 weeks or less of gestation," is a risk factor because preterm infants have underdeveloped immune systems, making them more vulnerable to infections like GBS. Option C, "Maternal temperature of 38°C or higher," is a risk factor as maternal fever during labor can be a sign of infection, including GBS, which can increase the risk of neonatal infection. Educationally, understanding these risk factors is crucial for healthcare providers to implement appropriate interventions to prevent neonatal GBS infection, such as intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for mothers with known GBS colonization or risk factors. This knowledge can help improve maternal and neonatal outcomes by reducing the incidence of GBS-related morbidity and mortality.

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